a nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for trazodone which of the following should be monitored
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client has been prescribed trazodone. Which of the following should be monitored?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. Trazodone is an antidepressant that can impact mood and behavior. Monitoring for changes in mood or behavior is crucial to assess the effectiveness and potential side effects of the medication. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not typically associated with trazodone use. While trazodone can affect liver function in some cases, monitoring liver function is not the primary concern compared to assessing mood changes. Trazodone can cause changes in heart rate in some patients, but the priority monitoring in this case should be related to its effects on mood.

2. A nurse on a rehab unit is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted patient who has difficulty swallowing following a stroke. Which interprofessional team members should the nurse anticipate consulting?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Speech-language pathologist. A speech-language pathologist specializes in assessing and treating swallowing disorders, making them the most appropriate consultant for a patient with difficulty swallowing following a stroke. While other interprofessional team members such as a physical therapist (choice A), social worker (choice C), and respiratory therapist (choice D) may play important roles in the patient's care, the primary focus for swallowing difficulties would be the speech-language pathologist.

3. A client who is having suicidal thoughts tells the nurse, “It just doesn’t seem worth it anymore. Why not end my misery?” Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate response by the nurse is to ask about the client's plan to end their life. This question helps to assess the severity of the client's suicidal ideation and the immediacy of the risk, allowing the nurse to determine the appropriate level of intervention. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the immediate risk assessment needed in this situation.

4. A client at 28 weeks of gestation is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine is the correct choice in this scenario. It is a calcium channel blocker that helps suppress uterine contractions and halt preterm labor. Nifedipine is commonly used to manage preterm labor in pregnant women by relaxing the smooth muscle of the uterus. Oxytocin (Choice A) is used to induce or augment labor, not to inhibit contractions. Dinoprostone (Choice C) and Misoprostol (Choice D) are prostaglandins used for cervical ripening and induction of labor, not for stopping preterm labor.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment for a client who has dysrhythmias. What indicates ineffective cardiac contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulse deficit. A pulse deficit is a significant finding in clients with dysrhythmias, indicating ineffective cardiac contractions. Pulse deficit occurs when there is a difference between the apical and radial pulses, suggesting that not all heart contractions are strong enough to produce a pulse that can be felt peripherally. Increased blood pressure (choice A) may occur due to various factors and is not a direct indicator of ineffective cardiac contractions. Similarly, a normal heart rate (choice C) and elevated oxygen saturation (choice D) do not specifically point towards ineffective cardiac contractions; they can be present in individuals with dysrhythmias but do not directly indicate ineffective cardiac contractions.

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