an antepartal client is rh negative and understands that she will receive a rhogam injection during her pregnancy the client asks the nurse if she wil
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. An antepartum client is Rh negative and understands that she will receive a RhoGAM injection during her pregnancy. The client asks the nurse if she will also receive a RhoGAM injection after the birth of her baby. The client will receive RhoGAM after the birth if blood tests are:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If the baby is Rh positive and the mother is Rh negative, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood. RhoGAM is administered to prevent the mother's immune system from becoming sensitized to Rh-positive blood. Therefore, the mother, who is Rh negative, will receive RhoGAM after birth if the baby is Rh positive and both the mother and baby have negative Coombs tests. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not match the criteria for RhoGAM administration in this scenario.

2. A client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is admitted to labor and delivery. What question should the nurse ask?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct question the nurse should ask the client who is 38 weeks pregnant with herpes simplex virus is 'Do you have any active lesions?' This is crucial because active herpes lesions may necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal infection. Choice B, 'Have your membranes ruptured?' is related to assessing for the rupture of membranes, not specific to the client's herpes infection. Choice C, 'How far apart are your contractions?' is related to monitoring labor progress. Choice D, 'Are you positive for beta strep?' is related to group B streptococcus screening, which is important but not the priority in this scenario.

3. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before administering blood products, assessing the patient’s temperature is crucial. This action provides baseline data to detect any febrile reactions during or after the transfusion. Fever may indicate a transfusion reaction, so continuous monitoring of vital signs is essential throughout the procedure. Documenting the patient’s response (choice B) is important but comes after assessing the temperature. Priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride (choice C) is not directly related to the initial action required before administering blood products. Administering epinephrine (choice D) is not indicated unless there is a severe allergic reaction, which is not the standard initial step before blood product administration.

4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in preterm labor who is receiving magnesium sulfate. Which of the following is an indication of magnesium toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine output of 20 mL/hour. Urine output below 30 mL/hour is a sign of magnesium toxicity due to the risk of accumulation in the body. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of magnesium toxicity. Elevated blood glucose, systolic blood pressure, and normal respiratory rate are not specific signs of magnesium toxicity.

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