Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased heart rate
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Increased energy levels
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. Peripheral edema, the accumulation of fluid causing swelling in the extremities, is a classic sign of heart failure due to fluid overload. This occurs because the heart's reduced pumping efficiency leads to fluid backup in the circulatory system. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Decreased heart rate is not typically associated with heart failure; instead, tachycardia or an increased heart rate may be observed. Increased energy levels are not an expected finding in heart failure, as this condition often causes fatigue and weakness. Hyperglycemia is not a direct sign of heart failure; however, it can be present in individuals with uncontrolled diabetes or as a result of certain treatments, but it is not a specific indicator of heart failure.

2. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Maintain IV access
• B. Obtain the client’s vital signs
• C. Contact the provider
• D. Stop the transfusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.

3. A nurse is caring for a 7-month-old infant being treated for severe dehydration. Which finding indicates treatment has been effective?

• A. Skin turgor displays tenting
• B. Flat anterior fontanel
• C. Cool, mottled skin
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates improved hydration in infants, as dehydration typically causes sunken fontanels.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?

• A. Lip-smacking
• B. Agranulocytosis
• C. Clang association
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lip-smacking is a symptom of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw. Agranulocytosis (Choice B) is a rare but serious side effect of some medications, characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Clang association (Choice C) is a thought disorder characterized by the association of words based on sound rather than meaning. Alopecia (Choice D) refers to hair loss, which is not a known long-term side effect of haloperidol.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who is postop following abdominal surgery. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for complications?

• A. Walking twice daily
• B. Suppression of the urge to cough
• C. Suppression of the urge to defecate
• D. Lack of ambulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Suppression of the urge to defecate postoperatively can lead to complications such as constipation, which can increase the risk of complications after abdominal surgery. Walking twice daily (choice A) is actually beneficial for preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Suppression of the urge to cough (choice B) can lead to issues like atelectasis. Lack of ambulation (choice D) can also contribute to complications like pneumonia and blood clots.

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