Nursing Elites

1. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer vitamin K by IM injection to a newborn. The medication should be administered into which of the following muscles?

• A. Vastus lateralis
• B. Ventrogluteal
• C. Dorsogluteal
• D. Deltoid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vitamin K is typically administered in the vastus lateralis muscle of a newborn to prevent bleeding disorders. The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for IM injections in infants due to its size and accessibility, allowing for easy and safe administration. The ventrogluteal and dorsogluteal sites are more commonly used in adults due to better muscle mass and less risk of injury to nearby structures. The deltoid muscle is typically used for older children and adults for IM injections, as it is a well-developed muscle suitable for injections in these populations.

3. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
• B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
• C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
• D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.

4. A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Notify the provider of the findings.
• B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
• C. Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
• D. Have the client void.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to position the client with one hip elevated. This position can help improve blood flow to the placenta and stabilize blood pressure, which is crucial for both the client and the fetus during labor. It can also help optimize fetal oxygenation by improving circulation. Notifying the provider of the findings may be necessary, but ensuring proper positioning of the client takes precedence to address the immediate physiological needs. Asking the client about pain medication or having the client void are important interventions but are not the priority in this scenario where the client is experiencing painful contractions and has low blood pressure.

5. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

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