ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
- C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.
2. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about ways to reduce solid fat consumption with a client who has an elevated cholesterol level. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Use oils with trans fats
- B. Choose lean cuts of beef
- C. Avoid purchasing beef that is a loin cut
- D. Purchase chicken instead of lamb
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Choose lean cuts of beef.' Selecting lean cuts of beef is crucial in reducing solid fat consumption for individuals with high cholesterol levels. Lean cuts contain less saturated fat compared to fatty cuts, thus aiding in managing cholesterol levels. Option A is incorrect as oils with trans fats should be avoided since they contribute to unhealthy fats. Option C is not directly related to reducing solid fat consumption. Option D, while suggesting a leaner meat option, does not address the issue of solid fat consumption as directly as choosing lean cuts of beef.
3. What is the primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders?
- A. It focuses on long-term use of medications.
- B. It helps patients understand and change their thought patterns.
- C. It primarily addresses childhood traumas.
- D. It encourages patients to avoid anxiety-provoking situations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders is that it helps patients understand and change their thought patterns. By addressing maladaptive thought processes and behaviors, CBT can effectively reduce anxiety symptoms and improve coping mechanisms. This approach empowers individuals to develop healthier responses to anxiety triggers, leading to long-lasting benefits beyond solely relying on medications or avoiding anxiety-provoking situations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on long-term use of medications, addressing childhood traumas, or encouraging avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations. While medications may be used in conjunction with CBT, the main focus of CBT is on cognitive restructuring and behavioral interventions to alleviate anxiety symptoms.
4. When preparing to administer a controlled substance, which of the following actions is required?
- A. Check the client's identification bracelet.
- B. Check the client's allergy status.
- C. Have a second nurse witness disposal of the medication.
- D. Document the administration in the client's medical record.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When administering controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse witness the disposal of the medication. This measure ensures proper handling, reduces the risk of diversion, and promotes compliance with regulations regarding controlled substances. Having a second nurse witness the disposal is a safeguard to maintain accountability and prevent any potential misuse or errors during the disposal process. Checking the client's identification bracelet and allergy status are important steps in medication administration but are not specifically required for controlled substances. Documenting the administration in the client's medical record is essential but does not specifically relate to the disposal of controlled substances.
5. What is the primary intervention for a patient with a pneumothorax?
- A. Insert a chest tube
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Monitor respiratory rate
- D. Administer analgesics
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to insert a chest tube. This intervention is considered the definitive treatment for a pneumothorax as it helps remove air or fluid from the pleural space, re-expanding the lung. Administering oxygen (Choice B) can be supportive but is not the primary intervention to treat a pneumothorax. Monitoring respiratory rate (Choice C) is important but does not address the underlying issue of air in the pleural space. Administering analgesics (Choice D) may help manage pain but does not treat the pneumothorax itself.
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