ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A caregiver is learning about newborn safety. Which of the following statements by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will dress my baby in flame-retardant clothing.
- B. I will ensure a bib on my baby at night to keep her clothing dry.
- C. I will warm my baby's formula using the lowest setting in the microwave.
- D. I will cover the crib mattress with plastic to prevent staining.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dressing a baby in flame-retardant clothing is crucial to prevent injuries, especially in case of accidental exposure to fire sources. This safety measure can provide an added layer of protection for the newborn. The other options do not directly address newborn safety concerns or best practices. Option B focuses on keeping clothing dry, which is not a primary safety concern. Option C poses a risk of overheating the formula, which can be dangerous for the baby. Option D, covering the crib mattress with plastic, may pose a suffocation hazard to the baby.
2. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
- B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
- C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
- D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.
3. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
- A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
- C. Kleihauer-Betke test
- D. Indirect Coombs' test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.
4. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?
- A. Active
- B. Transition
- C. Latent
- D. Descent
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.
5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).
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