a nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in active labor the nurse recognizes late decelerations on the fe
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Comprehensive Predictor PN

1. A nurse is assisting with monitoring a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in active labor. The nurse recognizes late decelerations on the fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, and the priority nursing action is to improve placental perfusion. Positioning the client on their side, particularly the left side, can enhance blood flow to the placenta and fetus by reducing pressure on the vena cava and increasing cardiac output. Applying oxygen, although helpful, is not the initial priority in this situation. Calling for a Cesarean delivery is not warranted unless other interventions fail to correct the late decelerations. Administering oxytocin can worsen the condition by increasing uterine contractions, exacerbating fetal distress.

2. A healthcare professional is managing a client with a wound infection. What is the priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Performing a wound culture before applying antibiotics is crucial to identify the specific pathogen causing the infection. This helps in selecting the most effective antibiotics for treatment. Changing the wound dressing, applying a wet-to-dry dressing, or cleansing the wound are important interventions but should follow the assessment and identification of the infecting organism through a wound culture to guide appropriate treatment.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the medical-surgical unit following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following should the nurse identify as a priority nursing assessment after reviewing the client's information?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Level of consciousness. Following a TURP procedure, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate potential postoperative complications such as hemorrhage or shock. Skin turgor (choice B) is more related to hydration status, deep-tendon reflexes (choice C) are not the priority post-TURP, and bowel sounds (choice D) are important but not the priority in this situation.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease needs dietary restrictions. What restriction is necessary?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to limit potassium-rich foods for clients with chronic kidney disease. Excessive potassium can be harmful to individuals with compromised kidney function, leading to complications. This restriction helps in managing the condition and preventing further health issues. Choice A is incorrect because increasing protein intake can put additional stress on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as excessive fluid intake can burden the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect as increasing phosphorus intake can be harmful for individuals with kidney disease.

5. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with potential pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correctly assessing a patient with potential pneumonia involves listening to lung sounds and monitoring oxygen saturation. Lung sounds can reveal abnormal breath sounds associated with pneumonia, such as crackles or diminished breath sounds. Oxygen saturation monitoring helps in detecting respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia. Monitoring for fever and sputum production (Choice B) is important but not as specific as assessing lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Auscultating heart sounds and checking for cyanosis (Choice C) are not primary assessments for pneumonia. Monitoring for chest pain and administering oxygen (Choice D) are relevant interventions but do not address the initial assessment of pneumonia.

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