Nursing Elites

1. What should a healthcare professional do when a client with anorexia nervosa insists on working out constantly?

• A. Allow the client to workout and continue their regimen
• B. Restrict the client's workout regimen to one hour a day
• C. Discuss the risks of over-exercising with the client
• D. Speak to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When dealing with a client with anorexia nervosa who insists on working out constantly, it is crucial to address the situation sensitively. Speaking to the client privately to uncover the source of the obsession is the most appropriate action. This approach allows the healthcare professional to understand the underlying reasons for the behavior and work towards a solution together. Choices A and B could potentially exacerbate the client's condition by either enabling the behavior or imposing restrictions without addressing the root cause. While choice C is important, simply discussing the risks may not address the client's compulsion to exercise excessively.

2. An RN is making assignments for client care to an LPN at the beginning of the shift. Which of the following assignments should the LPN question?

• A. Assisting a client who is 24 hr postop to use an incentive spirometer
• B. Collecting a clean catch urine specimen from a client who was admitted on the previous shift
• C. Providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client who has pneumonia
• D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The LPN should question the assignment of replacing the PCA pump cartridge and tubing as it is outside the LPN's scope of practice. LPNs are not trained to handle tasks related to PCA pumps, which involve medication administration and monitoring that are typically within the RN's responsibilities. Assisting a postop client with an incentive spirometer (Choice A), collecting a clean catch urine specimen (Choice B), and providing nasopharyngeal suctioning for a client with pneumonia (Choice C) are all tasks that fall within the LPN's scope of practice and do not require questioning by the LPN.

3. How should a healthcare professional assess a patient with a suspected infection?

• A. Monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells
• B. Monitor blood pressure and check for fever
• C. Assess for changes in mental status and monitor urine output
• D. Administer antibiotics and monitor for changes in mental status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with a suspected infection, it is crucial to monitor temperature and check for elevated white blood cells. Elevated temperature indicates a potential infection, and increased white blood cells are a sign of inflammation and the body's response to an infection. Monitoring blood pressure (choice B) and checking for fever (choice B) are not as specific indicators of infection as monitoring temperature and white blood cell count. Assessing changes in mental status and monitoring urine output (choice C) are important aspects of patient assessment but may not directly indicate a suspected infection. Administering antibiotics (choice D) should only be done after a confirmed diagnosis of a bacterial infection, as unnecessary antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other adverse effects.

4. What should a healthcare professional assess in a patient presenting with symptoms of a stroke?

• A. Assess facial drooping
• B. Monitor speech difficulties
• C. Evaluate arm weakness
• D. Check for time of onset of symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a patient with suspected stroke symptoms, it is crucial to check for facial drooping as it can be a sign of facial nerve weakness, which is a common indicator of stroke. While monitoring speech difficulties and evaluating arm weakness are also important assessments in stroke cases, they are secondary to facial drooping. Checking for the time of onset of symptoms is essential to determine eligibility for time-sensitive treatments like thrombolytic therapy, but when prioritizing assessments, facial drooping takes precedence.

5. What are the side effects of chemotherapy, and how should they be managed?

• A. Nausea, vomiting; manage with antiemetics
• B. Hair loss and anemia; manage with blood transfusions
• C. Diarrhea and fatigue; manage with hydration
• D. Weight gain and high blood pressure; manage with diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct side effects of chemotherapy mentioned in this question are nausea and vomiting. These side effects are commonly managed with antiemetics to improve the quality of life for patients undergoing chemotherapy. Choice B (Hair loss and anemia) is incorrect as hair loss and anemia are potential side effects of chemotherapy but are not addressed in this question. Choice C (Diarrhea and fatigue) is also incorrect as it does not match the side effects provided. Choice D (Weight gain and high blood pressure) is inaccurate as these are not typical side effects of chemotherapy.

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