a nurse is observing an assistive personnel ap apply antiembolic stockings for a client which of the following actions by the ap demonstrates an under
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 with NGN

1. A nurse is observing an assistive personnel (AP) apply antiembolic stockings for a client. Which of the following actions by the AP demonstrates an understanding of how to perform this skill?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Applying antiembolic stockings before the client gets out of bed is crucial as it helps prevent venous stasis and clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because stockings should be applied before the client gets out of bed. Choice C is incorrect as using lotion under the stocking can cause the stocking to slip. Choice D is incorrect because the stocking should be smooth and not bunched to prevent pressure points.

2. What is the priority nursing action for a dehydrated client who needs fluids?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor electrolyte levels frequently. When a client is dehydrated and needs fluids, it is essential to monitor electrolyte levels to prevent complications such as electrolyte imbalances. Administering antiemetics to prevent vomiting (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority when addressing dehydration. Administering oral rehydration solutions (Choice C) can be beneficial, but monitoring electrolyte levels takes precedence to ensure proper hydration. Inserting an NG tube for fluid administration (Choice D) is invasive and not typically the first-line approach for managing dehydration.

3. A nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client at risk for pressure ulcers is to turn and reposition the client every 2 hours. This helps relieve pressure on bony prominences, improving circulation and reducing the risk of pressure ulcer development. Applying heat to the affected area (Choice A) can increase the risk of skin breakdown. Placing the client in a prone position (Choice B) can also increase pressure on certain areas, leading to pressure ulcers. Providing the client with a bedpan every 4 hours (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing pressure ulcers.

4. What are the key components of a focused respiratory assessment, and how do you recognize signs of respiratory distress?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation. A focused respiratory assessment should start with inspection (observing the breathing pattern), followed by palpation (feeling for abnormalities like crepitus), percussion (evaluating for dullness or hyperresonance), and auscultation (listening to lung sounds). This systematic approach helps to identify signs of respiratory distress, such as abnormal breath sounds, increased respiratory rate, use of accessory muscles, and cyanosis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the standard order and sequence of a focused respiratory assessment.

5. A client is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion through increased urinary excretion. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent hypokalemia, which can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, muscle weakness, and other serious complications. Monitoring sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels is not typically associated with furosemide therapy, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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