Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer metoclopramide 10 mg IM. Available is metoclopramide 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?

• A. 1 mL
• B. 2 mL
• C. 3 mL
• D. 4 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 10 mg of metoclopramide, the nurse should administer 2 mL (10 mg / 5 mg per mL). Therefore, the correct answer is 2 mL. Choice A (1 mL) is incorrect because it would only deliver 5 mg of metoclopramide, which is half the required dose. Choice C (3 mL) and D (4 mL) are incorrect as they would provide more than the required dose of 10 mg.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of Raynaud's disease. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
• B. Keep your home environment warm.
• C. Elevate your legs when sitting.
• D. Reduce your intake of sodium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to keep the home environment warm. Raynaud's disease causes vasospasm in response to cold, so maintaining a warm environment can help prevent attacks. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing potassium intake, elevating legs when sitting, or reducing sodium intake are not specific to managing Raynaud's disease.

4. What is the nurse's responsibility when caring for a client with a chest tube?

• A. Check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours
• B. Clamp the chest tube for 30 minutes every 4 hours
• C. Encourage deep breathing and coughing every 2 hours
• D. Keep the client in a high Fowler's position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check for air leaks in the tubing every 4 hours when caring for a client with a chest tube. This responsibility is crucial because it ensures proper chest tube function and helps prevent complications such as pneumothorax or hemothorax. Clamping the chest tube (Choice B) can lead to serious issues by causing a tension pneumothorax. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (Choice C) is important for respiratory hygiene but is not directly related to chest tube care. Keeping the client in a high Fowler's position (Choice D) may be beneficial for some conditions but is not specific to chest tube management.

5. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?

• A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
• B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
• C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
• D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.

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