Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is an expected side effect of furosemide?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium, leading to hypokalemia. Choice A, Bradycardia, is incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Choice C, Increased blood pressure, is incorrect as furosemide is actually used to lower blood pressure by reducing fluid volume. Choice D, Increased urine output, is a common effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not an adverse side effect.

2. What are early indicators of dehydration?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Increased thirst
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, dry mouth, and B, increased thirst are early indicators of dehydration. Dry mouth occurs when the body is dehydrated, and increased thirst is the body's way of trying to increase fluid intake to combat dehydration. Choices C and D, decreased urine output and dizziness, can be signs of severe dehydration but are not typically considered early indicators.

3. A nurse is caring for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Position the drainage bag below the bladder
• B. Wipe the drainage port after emptying
• C. Insert the catheter using sterile technique
• D. Avoid cleansing the urinary meatus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wipe the drainage port after emptying. This action helps reduce the risk of infection by maintaining cleanliness. Positioning the drainage bag below the bladder (choice A) is incorrect as it should be positioned below the level of the bladder to prevent backflow of urine. Inserting the catheter using sterile technique (choice C) is not necessary for routine emptying of the drainage bag. Avoiding cleansing the urinary meatus (choice D) is incorrect as proper hygiene should be maintained to prevent infections.

4. Which dietary restriction should be taught to a client with chronic kidney disease?

• A. Increase potassium-rich foods
• B. Limit phosphorus and potassium intake
• C. Encourage increased protein intake
• D. Increase fluid intake

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit phosphorus and potassium intake. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively filter these minerals from the blood, leading to their accumulation and potential complications. Restricting phosphorus and potassium intake is crucial in managing the progression of the disease. Choice A is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can worsen the condition. Choice C is also incorrect as excessive protein intake can put more strain on the kidneys. Choice D is not the priority; rather, fluid intake should be monitored based on individual needs and stage of kidney disease.

5. Which intervention is most important for a client with chronic heart failure?

• A. Encourage fluid intake to prevent dehydration
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance
• C. Limit sodium intake to reduce fluid retention
• D. Restrict daily activity to prevent fatigue

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's weight daily to assess fluid balance in clients with chronic heart failure. Monitoring weight helps in detecting fluid retention or fluid loss, which is crucial in managing heart failure. Encouraging fluid intake to prevent dehydration (choice A) may worsen fluid overload in heart failure patients. Limiting sodium intake (choice C) is essential but not the most important intervention compared to monitoring weight. Restricting daily activity (choice D) is not recommended as it is important for clients with heart failure to engage in appropriate levels of physical activity to maintain their overall health.

Similar Questions