Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)

• A. Gonorrhea
• B. Chlamydia
• C. HIV
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. It is crucial to identify and treat these infections promptly to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the infant. Therefore, all the given options are correct as they can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Other choices are incorrect because only gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be effectively treated during labor or immediately after birth to prevent vertical transmission.

2. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

• A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
• B. 3+ protein in the urine
• C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
• D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

3. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
• B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
• C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
• D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.

4. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

5. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
• B. Threatened abortion
• C. Hydatidiform mole
• D. Preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

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