ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening
- A. A,B,C,D
- B. D,B,A,C
- C. A,D,B,C
- D. A,C,D,B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes during pregnancy is as follows: Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix), Quickening (first fetal movements felt by the mother), and Lightening (baby descending into the pelvis). These changes occur at different stages of pregnancy and are important indicators of fetal development and maternal adaptation. Choice A is correct as it is the initial change indicating possible pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D follow in the correct order of occurrence during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes.
2. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
- C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.
3. A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Persistent abdominal striae
- B. Temperature 37.8° C (100.2° F)
- C. Unilateral breast pain
- D. Brownish-red discharge on day 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Unilateral breast pain can be a sign of mastitis, an infection of the breast tissue, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. The nurse should instruct the client to report this clinical manifestation to the provider to prevent complications and promote recovery.
4. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
- A. Epidural anesthesia
- B. Urinary bladder catheterization
- C. Frequent pelvic examinations
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.
5. During newborn gestational age assessment, which finding should be recorded as part of this assessment on the newborn?
- A. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
- B. Anterior fontanel soft and level
- C. Plantar creases cover 2/3 of sole
- D. Vernix caseosa in inguinal creases
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Plantar creases covering 2/3 of the sole is an important physical characteristic used to assess gestational age in a newborn. This finding is significant because as gestational age advances, the plantar creases cover a larger portion of the sole. It is a valuable clue to the healthcare provider in determining the newborn's maturity level. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically relate to gestational age assessment. Acrocyanosis and vernix caseosa are common findings in newborns but are not directly used for determining gestational age. The softness and level of the anterior fontanel can provide information about intracranial pressure but are not directly related to gestational age assessment.
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