Nursing Elites

1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening

• A. A,B,C,D
• B. D,B,A,C
• C. A,D,B,C
• D. A,C,D,B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes during pregnancy is as follows: Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix), Quickening (first fetal movements felt by the mother), and Lightening (baby descending into the pelvis). These changes occur at different stages of pregnancy and are important indicators of fetal development and maternal adaptation. Choice A is correct as it is the initial change indicating possible pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D follow in the correct order of occurrence during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes.

2. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

3. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
• B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
• C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
• D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

• A. Chadwick's sign
• B. Goodell's sign
• C. Ballottement
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

5. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Continue monitoring the client.
• C. Request that the provider assess the client.
• D. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

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