ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
2. When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
- B. Assess the fluid.
- C. Check cervical dilation.
- D. Begin FHR monitoring.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. The priority intervention when a client's water breaks is to assess the fetal well-being due to the risk of umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) will help the nurse ensure the fetus's well-being. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) or assessing the fluid (choice B) may provide information about the rupture of membranes but does not directly address fetal well-being. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is important but not the priority when the client's water has broken.
3. A caregiver is being taught about bottle feeding a newborn. Which of the following statements by the caregiver indicates a need for further instruction?
- A. I will keep the baby's head elevated while feeding.
- B. I will allow the baby to burp several times during each feeding.
- C. I will tilt the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks.
- D. My baby will have soft, formed yellow stools.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Tilting the bottle to prevent air from entering as the baby sucks can lead to the baby swallowing air, causing discomfort and potential issues like colic or gas. The correct way to bottle-feed a newborn is by ensuring that the nipple is always filled with milk to avoid air intake, which can lead to problems. Keeping the baby's head elevated while feeding helps prevent choking, allowing the baby to burp several times during each feeding helps release swallowed air, and soft, formed yellow stools indicate a healthy digestion process in newborns.
4. When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I am glad I can have my morning coffee.
- B. I should take folic acid to increase my milk supply.
- C. I will continue adding 330 calories per day to my diet.
- D. I will continue my calcium supplements because I don't like milk.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients who do not like milk should continue taking calcium supplements to ensure they meet their increased calcium needs while breastfeeding. Calcium is essential for bone health, and during breastfeeding, the mother's calcium requirements are higher. While caffeine in coffee can be consumed in moderation, folic acid does not directly impact milk supply, and the additional 330 calories per day are recommended but not the focus of this question.
5. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
- A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
- B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
- C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
- D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access