Nursing Elites

1. A client who signed an informed consent form for surgery but has since expressed doubts about the need for surgery should discuss concerns with the surgeon to obtain informed answers. Which statement should the nurse make?

• A. It's normal to feel unsure; the surgery will be beneficial
• B. You can cancel surgery any time without any consequences
• C. I'll inform the surgeon to answer your questions before surgery
• D. We can reschedule surgery for another day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the nurse should facilitate communication between the client and the surgeon to address any doubts and provide necessary information. Choice A may invalidate the client's concerns and might not address the root of the issue. Choice B oversimplifies the situation and might not consider the potential consequences of canceling surgery. Choice D, while offering an alternative, does not address the client's doubts about the surgery.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.

3. A nurse is providing education to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy. What information should the nurse include regarding the cause of indigestion and heartburn?

• A. Estrogen causes increased appetite
• B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the cardiac sphincter allowing acid to reflux
• C. HCG hormone leads to increased gastric acidity
• D. The uterus compresses the stomach early in pregnancy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Progesterone causes relaxation of the smooth muscles in the body, including the cardiac sphincter. This relaxation allows stomach acid to reflux into the esophagus, leading to heartburn during pregnancy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly relate to the physiological mechanism that causes heartburn during pregnancy. Estrogen causing increased appetite (Choice A) is not directly linked to heartburn. HCG hormone increasing gastric acidity (Choice C) is not the primary cause of heartburn during pregnancy. The uterus compressing the stomach early in pregnancy (Choice D) may contribute to feelings of fullness or bloating but is not the main cause of heartburn.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the Papanicolaou (Pap) test. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A Pap test is recommended every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65.
• B. Pap tests are recommended following removal of the ovaries.
• C. Avoid having sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test.
• D. Viral infections cannot be detected by a Pap test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients should avoid sexual intercourse for 24 hours prior to the Pap test to ensure accurate results, as it can affect the sample. This is important for obtaining reliable results. Choice A is incorrect because a yearly Pap test is not the standard recommendation for all age groups; instead, it is typically every 3 years for women aged 21-29 and every 3-5 years for women aged 30-65. Choice B is incorrect because Pap tests are not necessarily discontinued following removal of the ovaries; they may still be needed based on the individual's health history and provider recommendations. Choice D is incorrect because while Pap tests are primarily used to detect abnormal cervical cells and cervical cancer, they do not detect viral infections.

5. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which of the following client data should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Client who has pleurisy and reports pain of 6 on a scale of 0 to 10
• B. Client with 110 mL of serosanguineous fluid from a Jackson Pratt drain within the first 24 hours after surgery
• C. Client who is 4 hours postoperative and has a heart rate of 98 bpm
• D. Client who has a prescription for chemotherapy and an absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An absolute neutrophil count of 75/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, which puts the client at high risk of infection and requires immediate intervention. Neutropenia increases the susceptibility to infections due to a significant decrease in neutrophils, which are essential for fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. Reporting this critical lab value promptly to the provider is essential to ensure appropriate interventions are initiated to prevent life-threatening infections. Choices A, B, and C do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent reporting to the provider.

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