Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was born vaginally with vacuum extractor assistance. The nurse notes swelling over the newborn's head that crosses the suture line. The nurse should identify the swelling as which of the following findings?

• A. Nevus simplex
• B. Caput succedaneum
• C. Cephalohematoma
• D. Erythema toxicum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Caput succedaneum is the correct answer. It is the swelling of the soft tissues of the head that crosses suture lines, often resulting from pressure during delivery, especially with vacuum extraction. Nevus simplex (Choice A) is a pink or red birthmark that is flat and usually fades on its own. Cephalohematoma (Choice C) is a collection of blood between a baby's skull and the periosteum, often caused by birth trauma. Erythema toxicum (Choice D) is a common rash in newborns that is benign and typically resolves on its own. In this case, the description of swelling over the newborn's head crossing the suture line is characteristic of caput succedaneum, which is a common finding in newborns after vaginal delivery.

2. When teaching a client about the use of risperidone, which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an SSRI
• B. Monitor for metabolic syndrome
• C. It has no side effects
• D. It can be taken with alcohol

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for metabolic syndrome.' Risperidone is not an SSRI but an atypical antipsychotic. Choice A is incorrect. Choice C is also incorrect as risperidone, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice D is wrong because alcohol consumption should generally be avoided while taking risperidone. Educating clients about monitoring for metabolic syndrome, weight gain, and other potential side effects is crucial in managing their health effectively while on this medication.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with heart failure. Which of the following signs should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In heart failure, the accumulation of fluid can lead to peripheral edema, which is swelling in the extremities. This is a common sign that healthcare professionals should monitor for. While tachycardia (increased heart rate), bradycardia (decreased heart rate), and hypotension (low blood pressure) can also occur in heart failure, they are not the primary signs typically associated with this condition. Therefore, peripheral edema is the most relevant sign to monitor in this case.

4. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of gabapentin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It can cause drowsiness
• B. It has no side effects
• C. It is a pain reliever
• D. It can be taken with food

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause drowsiness.' Gabapentin is known to cause drowsiness, and clients should be warned about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects. Choice C is incorrect because although gabapentin is used for pain management, it is not classified as a pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, and specific instructions regarding food intake should be provided based on individual needs.

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