Nursing Elites

1. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

• A. 4
• B. 7 (comatose)
• C. 9
• D. 10

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is showing signs of dysphagia. Which of the following findings should the nurse recognize as an indication of this condition?

• A. Abnormal movements of the mouth
• B. Inability to stand without assistance
• C. Paralysis of the right arm
• D. Loss of appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Abnormal movements of the mouth are a common indication of dysphagia, a condition that impairs swallowing function. In clients who have had a stroke, dysphagia can increase the risk of aspiration, leading to serious complications. Inability to stand without assistance (Choice B) is more indicative of motor deficits following a stroke rather than dysphagia. Paralysis of the right arm (Choice C) is a manifestation of hemiplegia, which is common in stroke but not directly related to dysphagia. Loss of appetite (Choice D) may occur in individuals with dysphagia but is not a direct indicator of the condition itself.

3. A nurse is caring for a client with a recent diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Methotrexate
• B. Pyridostigmine
• C. Baclofen
• D. Atropine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pyridostigmine is the drug of choice for treating myasthenia gravis because it enhances communication between nerves and muscles by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Methotrexate (choice A) is not indicated for myasthenia gravis but is used in conditions like rheumatoid arthritis. Baclofen (choice C) is a muscle relaxant used for conditions like spasticity. Atropine (choice D) is not typically used in myasthenia gravis as it can worsen muscle weakness.

4. A nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery following a circumcision. The newborn's grandparent, who does not have an identification bracelet, requests to take the newborn to his mother's room. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify security.
• B. Respectfully deny the grandparent’s request.
• C. Contact the mother for verification.
• D. Escort the grandparent and newborn to the room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to respectfully deny the grandparent's request. In healthcare settings, strict security protocols are in place to ensure the safety of newborns. Only individuals with proper identification bracelets are allowed to transport newborns to prevent unauthorized individuals from taking them. Contacting the mother for verification would be time-consuming and may not be feasible immediately. Escorting the grandparent and newborn without proper identification would violate security protocols and compromise the newborn's safety. Notifying security should be done only if there is a threat or concern for safety, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the best course of action is for the nurse to respectfully deny the grandparent's request to uphold the safety and security measures in place.

5. A client has been taking propranolol. Which of the following findings indicates a need to withhold the medication?

• A. Sodium 130 mEq/L
• B. Blood pressure 156/90 mm Hg
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Pulse 54/min

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse of 54/min indicates bradycardia, which is a side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker. The medication should be withheld if the client's pulse drops below 60/min. The other findings (sodium levels, blood pressure, and potassium levels) are not directly indicative of the need to withhold propranolol.

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