ATI LPN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Which symptom would be most indicative of this disorder?
- A. Frequent nightmares
- B. Persistent worrying about multiple issues
- C. Excessive sleeping
- D. Loss of interest in daily activities
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Persistent worrying about multiple issues is a hallmark symptom of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). Individuals with GAD often experience excessive, uncontrollable worry about various aspects of their life, such as work, relationships, and health. This persistent and excessive worrying distinguishes GAD from normal everyday concerns and is a defining feature of the disorder. Frequent nightmares (Choice A) are more commonly associated with conditions like post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) rather than GAD. Excessive sleeping (Choice C) is not a typical symptom of GAD, as individuals with GAD often experience difficulty falling or staying asleep due to their anxious thoughts. Loss of interest in daily activities (Choice D) is more characteristic of conditions like depression rather than GAD.
2. A healthcare provider is educating a patient about the side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). Which side effect should the provider emphasize?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased libido
- C. Nausea
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When educating patients about SSRIs, it is crucial to emphasize the common side effect of nausea. Nausea is a frequently reported side effect of SSRIs that can impact adherence to treatment. By highlighting this side effect, patients can be better prepared and informed about what to expect when taking these medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as weight gain, increased libido, and insomnia are not typically associated with SSRIs as common side effects. Nausea is a more relevant and prevalent side effect to address with patients.
3. What is the primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) when treating a patient with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?
- A. To help the patient confront and process traumatic memories
- B. To help the patient change negative thought patterns
- C. To help the patient develop relaxation techniques
- D. To help the patient avoid triggers
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary goal of eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) in treating patients with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is to help them confront and process traumatic memories. EMDR uses bilateral stimulation to facilitate the processing of distressing memories, leading to their desensitization and reprocessing, ultimately reducing PTSD symptoms.
4. What assessment question will provide insight into the effects of a woman’s circadian rhythms on her quality of life?
- A. How much sleep do you usually get each night?
- B. Does your heart ever seem to skip a beat?
- C. When was the last time you had a fever?
- D. Do you have problems urinating?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inquiring about the amount of sleep a woman gets each night is crucial in understanding how her circadian rhythms may be affecting her quality of life. Circadian rhythms play a significant role in regulating sleep-wake cycles, and disruptions in these rhythms can impact overall well-being and quality of life.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient with anorexia nervosa. Which finding is most concerning?
- A. Mild bradycardia
- B. Electrolyte imbalances
- C. Slight hypotension
- D. Lanugo
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Electrolyte imbalances are a critical concern in patients with anorexia nervosa due to the potential for severe complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, muscle weakness, and neurological disturbances. Prompt identification and management of electrolyte imbalances are essential to prevent life-threatening outcomes.
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