Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Gastrointestinal disturbances
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

2. When caring for a client with anorexia nervosa, which of the following examples demonstrates the nurse’s use of interpersonal communication?

• A. The nurse discusses the client’s weight loss during a health care team meeting
• B. The nurse examines their own personal feelings about clients with anorexia nervosa
• C. The nurse asks the client about their personal body image perception
• D. The nurse presents an educational session about anorexia nervosa to a large group of adolescents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Interpersonal communication involves engaging in a conversation where the nurse asks the client about their personal body image perception. This demonstrates a direct interaction aimed at understanding the client's feelings and thoughts, which is essential in providing holistic care to individuals with anorexia nervosa. Choices A, B, and D do not directly involve the nurse-client interaction that characterizes interpersonal communication. A is more related to team communication, B focuses on the nurse's personal reflection, and D pertains to delivering educational content to a group rather than engaging in a one-on-one conversation with a client.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is prescribed fluvoxamine. What is a common side effect of this medication?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nausea is a common side effect of fluvoxamine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used in the treatment of OCD. Patients should be advised to monitor and report any gastrointestinal disturbances, including nausea, to their healthcare provider.

4. Which of the following is an example of a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) technique?

• A. Free association
• B. Thought stopping
• C. Dream analysis
• D. Systematic desensitization

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thought stopping is a specific cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) technique aimed at helping individuals manage and interrupt negative or intrusive thoughts. This technique involves identifying and stopping negative thought patterns to promote healthier thinking and emotional well-being. Free association and dream analysis are associated with psychoanalytic therapy, while systematic desensitization is a technique commonly used in behavior therapy.

5. In treating PTSD, which type of therapy is most commonly recommended?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT)
• B. Psychoanalytic therapy
• C. Humanistic therapy
• D. Gestalt therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is the most commonly recommended therapy for PTSD due to its effectiveness in helping patients identify and change negative thoughts and behaviors associated with trauma. This therapy focuses on providing practical coping strategies to manage symptoms and process traumatic experiences. Psychoanalytic therapy, humanistic therapy, and gestalt therapy are less commonly used for PTSD as they may not target the specific symptoms and cognitive distortions associated with this disorder.

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