a patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an ssri which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medicat
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ATI Mental Health Practice A

1. A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient with panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI, the nurse should monitor for gastrointestinal disturbances as a common side effect. SSRIs can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, diarrhea, or abdominal discomfort, especially at the beginning of treatment. Increased heart rate (Choice A) is not a common side effect of SSRIs; it is more commonly associated with medications like stimulants. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not a typical side effect of SSRIs, as they are more likely to cause weight loss or appetite suppression. Dry mouth (Choice D) is a side effect seen more commonly with medications that have anticholinergic properties, not typically with SSRIs.

2. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD, it is crucial to allow them to perform their rituals while gradually limiting the time spent on these rituals. This approach helps the patient feel supported while working towards reducing the compulsive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because suppressing compulsive behaviors can increase anxiety and distress. Choice C is inappropriate as discussing obsessions is part of therapy. Choice D is not recommended as setting limits on compulsive behaviors is essential for treatment.

3. When orienting a new client to a mental health unit, which of the following statements should the nurse make about the unit’s community meetings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During community meetings in a mental health unit, clients come together with staff to discuss common problems they may be facing. These meetings are designed to foster a sense of community and provide support and guidance to clients. Choice A is incorrect because community meetings focus on discussions beyond individual treatment plans. Choice B is incorrect as while staff may facilitate the meetings, the focus is on clients' concerns, not a predetermined agenda. Choice D is incorrect as the primary purpose of community meetings is to address shared challenges, not individual mental health issues.

4. A patient is receiving education about taking clozapine. Which statement indicates the patient understands the side effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients taking clozapine should report signs of infection immediately due to the risk of agranulocytosis. Agranulocytosis is a potentially life-threatening side effect of clozapine characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, which can leave the patient vulnerable to infections. Reporting signs of infection promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications.

5. What is the primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) for treating anxiety disorders is that it helps patients understand and change their thought patterns. By addressing maladaptive thought processes and behaviors, CBT can effectively reduce anxiety symptoms and improve coping mechanisms. This approach empowers individuals to develop healthier responses to anxiety triggers, leading to long-lasting benefits beyond solely relying on medications or avoiding anxiety-provoking situations. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because CBT does not primarily focus on long-term use of medications, addressing childhood traumas, or encouraging avoidance of anxiety-provoking situations. While medications may be used in conjunction with CBT, the main focus of CBT is on cognitive restructuring and behavioral interventions to alleviate anxiety symptoms.

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