a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for disulfiram for treatment of alcohol use disorder the nurse informs the client that this
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.

2. What is the primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary benefit of using exposure therapy for patients with phobias is to gradually reduce the patient's fear and anxiety. Exposure therapy involves exposing the individual to the feared object or situation in a controlled manner to help them confront their fears and learn that the perceived threat is not as harmful as initially believed. Over time, repeated exposure can lead to a decrease in anxiety and fear responses, helping the individual manage and overcome their phobia. Choice A is incorrect because exposure therapy aims to reduce fear and anxiety, not necessarily eliminate the phobia completely. Choice C is incorrect as although relaxation techniques might be part of the therapy, the primary goal is fear reduction. Choice D is incorrect as exposure therapy typically involves gradual exposure rather than providing immediate relief.

3. A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing a patient with OCD, it is crucial to allow them to perform their rituals while gradually limiting the time spent on these rituals. This approach helps the patient feel supported while working towards reducing the compulsive behaviors. Choice A is incorrect because suppressing compulsive behaviors can increase anxiety and distress. Choice C is inappropriate as discussing obsessions is part of therapy. Choice D is not recommended as setting limits on compulsive behaviors is essential for treatment.

4. A patient diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder has been undergoing therapy for several months. Which outcome indicates that the patient is progressing in therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In dissociative identity disorder, the merging of different personalities is a crucial indicator of progress in therapy. As the different identities merge, it signifies that the patient is integrating fragmented aspects of their self, leading to a more cohesive sense of identity and a reduction in dissociative symptoms. This process is a significant therapeutic milestone in the treatment of dissociative identity disorder as it promotes internal cohesion and decreases internal conflict. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while developing a strong therapeutic relationship, recalling traumatic events without dissociating, and reporting fewer gaps in memory are important aspects of therapy, the merging of different personalities is specifically indicative of substantial progress in treating dissociative identity disorder.

5. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior at age 14, which caused Gilbert to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert’s early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Individuals with an early and slow onset of schizophrenia typically have a less positive outcome or prognosis. This is because early onset schizophrenia is often associated with a more severe form of the illness and can lead to greater functional impairment in various aspects of life, including academic and social functioning. Therefore, the prognosis for Gilbert, given his presentation and age of onset, would be considered to have a less positive outcome.

Similar Questions

What is a priority intervention for a patient with severe anxiety?
In planning care for the termination phase of a nurse-client relationship, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
During an intake assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a patient diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which question would be most appropriate?
A patient with a diagnosis of panic disorder is prescribed an SSRI. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for when the patient starts this medication?
When orienting a new client to a mental health unit, which of the following statements should the nurse make about the unit’s community meetings?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses