Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for disulfiram for the treatment of alcohol use disorder. The nurse informs the client that this medication can cause nausea and vomiting when alcohol is consumed. Which of the following types of treatment is this method an example of?

• A. Aversion therapy
• B. Flooding
• C. Biofeedback
• D. Dialectical behavior therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aversion therapy is a form of behavioral therapy that aims to create a negative response to a stimulus, in this case, alcohol consumption. Disulfiram is used in aversion therapy to induce unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed, such as nausea and vomiting, to deter the individual from drinking. Therefore, the use of disulfiram in this context exemplifies aversion therapy. Flooding involves exposing an individual to a feared object or situation to overcome anxiety; biofeedback teaches self-regulation techniques, and dialectical behavior therapy is a type of cognitive-behavioral therapy focusing on acceptance and change strategies, which are not directly related to the use of disulfiram for alcohol use disorder.

2. A client in an acute mental health facility is being discharged and requires supervision due to a severe mental illness. The client’s partner works all day but is home by late afternoon. Which of the following strategies should the nurse suggest for follow-up care?

• A. Receiving daily care from a home health aide
• B. Having a weekly visit from a nurse case worker
• C. Attending a partial hospitalization program
• D. Visiting a community mental health center on a daily basis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients requiring supervision due to severe mental illness, attending a partial hospitalization program provides structured care and support while allowing the client to return home in the evenings, making it a suitable option for follow-up care. The other choices are less appropriate: A home health aide may not provide the necessary level of care and supervision, a weekly visit from a nurse case worker may not be sufficient for the client's needs, and visiting a community mental health center on a daily basis may not offer the structured support required for someone with a severe mental illness.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client who has a mental health disorder. Which of the following actions should the professional include as a psychobiological intervention?

• A. Assist the client with systematic desensitization therapy
• B. Teach the client appropriate coping mechanisms
• C. Assess the client for comorbid health conditions
• D. Monitor the client for adverse effects of medications

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring the client for adverse effects of medications is considered a psychobiological intervention because it involves the physiological aspect of mental health treatment. It focuses on the biological impact of medications on the client's mental health condition, emphasizing the interplay between biological and psychological factors in managing mental health disorders. Choices A, B, and C are not psychobiological interventions. Choice A, systematic desensitization therapy, is a psychological intervention aimed at reducing anxiety by gradually exposing the client to feared stimuli. Choice B, teaching appropriate coping mechanisms, is a psychosocial intervention focusing on behavioral strategies to manage stress. Choice C, assessing for comorbid health conditions, pertains to identifying other medical issues that may coexist with the mental health disorder but does not directly address the biological effects of medications on mental health.

4. When working with a patient diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which therapeutic approach is most appropriate?

• A. Encouraging the patient to avoid discussing the traumatic event.
• B. Using exposure therapy to help the patient confront their fears.
• C. Advising the patient to focus on positive thoughts.
• D. Suggesting that the patient keep busy to distract from traumatic memories.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure therapy is an evidence-based treatment for PTSD that involves gradually exposing the patient to their traumatic memories in a safe and controlled environment. This approach helps individuals confront and process their fears, reducing the impact of the traumatic event over time. Avoiding discussing the trauma (choice A) may lead to avoidance behaviors and hinder recovery. Focusing on positive thoughts (choice C) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying trauma. Keeping busy to distract from memories (choice D) is a form of avoidance that does not help in processing the traumatic experiences. Therefore, using exposure therapy (choice B) is the most appropriate approach to effectively treat PTSD.

5. What principle about patient communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. Patients are more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say, so they are not likely to be offended.
• C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
• D. Most people with a mental illness have, by necessity, developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Effective patient communication is guided by the principle that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern from their caregivers. This approach helps to build trust and fosters effective communication, enhancing the nurse-patient relationship. Choice B is incorrect because patients value both talking and listening in effective communication. Choice C is incorrect because a nurse should always consider the impact of their words on the patient, regardless of the patient's history. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes about people with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly relevant to patient communication.

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