a nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Use of accessory muscles.' Clients with COPD often experience airway obstruction, leading to the use of accessory muscles to breathe. This compensatory mechanism helps them overcome the increased work of breathing. Choice A, 'Decreased respiratory rate,' is incorrect because clients with COPD typically have an increased respiratory rate due to the need for more effort to breathe. Choice C, 'Improved lung sounds,' is incorrect because COPD is characterized by wheezes, crackles, and diminished breath sounds. Choice D, 'Increased energy levels,' is incorrect because clients with COPD often experience fatigue due to the increased work of breathing and impaired gas exchange.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following should the nurse include as a risk factor for osteoporosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Early menopause. A client who goes into early menopause, from natural or surgical causes, is at greater risk for developing osteoporosis due to the rapid drop in estrogen levels. Choice B, history of falls, is not a direct risk factor for osteoporosis but can lead to fractures in individuals with osteoporosis. Choice C, African American race, is actually associated with a lower risk of osteoporosis compared to Caucasian or Asian descent. Choice D, obesity, is generally considered a protective factor against osteoporosis due to the increased mechanical loading on bones.

3. A nurse is assessing a newborn who is 10 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasal flaring can indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, which is a critical finding requiring immediate attention. This may suggest an issue with breathing or lung function. Reporting nasal flaring promptly allows the provider to assess and intervene to ensure the newborn's respiratory status is stable. Choices A, C, and D are within normal parameters for a 10-hour-old newborn and do not indicate an immediate concern. An axillary temperature of 36.5°C (97.7°F) is within the normal range for a newborn. A heart rate of 158/min is typical for a newborn, and one void since birth is an expected finding at this early stage.

4. A nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client with hypothyroidism who is stuporous should be assessed first as this may indicate a critical condition, possibly related to severe hypothyroidism. Stupor is a state of near-unconsciousness or insensibility, suggesting a decline in neurological function that requires immediate evaluation. Choices A, B, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent assessment. While chemotherapy, post-appendectomy complications, and burn care are important, they do not pose the same level of immediate risk as a stuporous client.

5. A client is prescribed propranolol. Which of the following client history findings would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol, a non-selective beta-blocker, should be avoided in clients with asthma as it can cause bronchoconstriction due to its beta2-blocking effects. Therefore, a client history finding of asthma would require the nurse to clarify this medication prescription. Hypertension, tachydysrhythmias, and urolithiasis are not contraindications for propranolol use, making them incorrect choices. For clients with asthma, a beta1 selective blocker would be preferred to avoid exacerbating bronchoconstriction.

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