Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is making assignments for the upcoming shift. What assignment should the charge nurse give to an LPN?

• A. A client who requires complex medication management
• B. A client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
• C. A client needing assessment of a new diagnosis
• D. A client requiring a nursing care plan update

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct assignment for an LPN would be a client who has dehydration and inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). This choice is appropriate because it involves monitoring the client's condition, providing basic care, and assisting with activities of daily living, which align with the scope of practice for LPNs. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that are more complex and require a higher level of nursing education and training, making them less suitable for an LPN.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.

3. A client gave birth 4 hours ago and is experiencing excessive vaginal bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

• A. Elevate the client's legs to a 30° angle
• B. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• C. Massage the client's fundus
• D. Initiate an infusion of oxytocin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to massage the client's fundus first. Uterine atony is a common cause of postpartum hemorrhage, and massaging the fundus can help stimulate uterine contractions, which will assist in reducing bleeding. Elevating the client's legs to a 30° angle (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation as fundal massage takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice B) may be necessary but should not take precedence over managing the postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin (Choice D) is a valid intervention to address uterine atony, but massaging the fundus should come first to promote immediate contraction and control bleeding.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 24 hours postpartum. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Uterine fundus is firm and midline
• B. Client's perineal pad is saturated in 15 minutes
• C. Client reports breast tenderness when breastfeeding
• D. Client's temperature is 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A perineal pad saturated in 15 minutes is a sign of excessive postpartum bleeding, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent postpartum hemorrhage. The other findings are normal postpartum occurrences. A firm and midline uterine fundus indicates proper involution, breast tenderness during breastfeeding is common due to engorgement, and a temperature of 100.4°F is considered within the normal range for the postpartum period.

5. A client with ulcerative colitis has a new prescription for sulfasalazine. What adverse effect should the client monitor for according to the nurse?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Constipation
• C. Oral candidiasis
• D. Sedation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Jaundice. Sulfasalazine can lead to liver toxicity, making it essential to monitor for jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, oral candidiasis, and sedation are not commonly associated with sulfasalazine use.

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