a nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline which of the following findings is a contr
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing preterm labor and has a new prescription for terbutaline. Which of the following findings is a contraindication for the administration of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, heart disease. Terbutaline is contraindicated in clients with heart disease because it can lead to tachycardia and other cardiac complications due to its beta-agonist properties. Choice B, cervical dilation of 2 cm, is not a contraindication for terbutaline administration in preterm labor. Choice C, gestational age of 34 weeks, does not contraindicate the use of terbutaline for preterm labor. Choice D, allergy to penicillin, is not related to the contraindications of terbutaline.

2. A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client’s chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.

3. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who sprained his ankle 12 hours ago. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse question?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription to apply heat to the affected extremity for 45 minutes. Heat should not be applied in the first 48 hours after an acute injury, as it can increase swelling. Cold therapy is more appropriate initially. Choices A, C, and D are appropriate actions in the care of a client with a sprained ankle. Elevating the affected extremity helps reduce swelling, wrapping it with a compression dressing provides support, and assessing sensation, movement, and pulse every 4 hours is important to monitor for complications.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has tuberculosis (TB) and is prescribed rifampin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin can cause harmless red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, sweat, and tears. Clients should be informed about this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because the duration of rifampin therapy for TB is typically longer than 6 months. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while on rifampin. Choice D is incorrect as rifampin does not cause sensitivity to sunlight.

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