Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

• A. Taking the medication with water
• B. Skipping doses of medication
• C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation
• D. Taking anti-inflammatory medication without food

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a narcotic medication. After administering, the nurse is left with an unused portion. What should the nurse do?

• A. Store the unused medication for later use
• B. Discard the medication in a regular trash bin
• C. Discard the medication with another nurse as a witness
• D. Report the unused portion to the provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to discard the medication with another nurse as a witness. Controlled substances, such as narcotic medications, must be properly disposed of to prevent misuse or diversion. Having another nurse witness the disposal ensures accountability and follows proper protocols. Storing the unused medication for later use (Choice A) is unsafe and could lead to misuse. Discarding the medication in a regular trash bin (Choice B) is inappropriate as it does not ensure proper disposal of a controlled substance. Reporting the unused portion to the provider (Choice D) is not the immediate action needed for proper medication disposal.

3. During a skin assessment on a client with risk factors for skin cancer, a nurse should understand that a suspicious lesion is:

• A. Scaly and red
• B. Asymmetric with variegated coloring
• C. Firm and rubbery
• D. Brown with a wart-like texture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Asymmetric with variegated coloring. An asymmetric lesion with variegated coloring, meaning different shades of color within the same lesion, is characteristic of melanoma, a type of skin cancer. This type of lesion should raise suspicions and prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D do not typically represent characteristics of suspicious skin lesions associated with skin cancer. Lesions that are scaly and red (Choice A) may indicate other skin conditions like eczema or psoriasis. Firm and rubbery lesions (Choice C) are more suggestive of benign skin growths like dermatofibromas. Lesions that are brown with a wart-like texture (Choice D) are often indicative of seborrheic keratosis, a benign growth, rather than a suspicious lesion related to skin cancer.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Place the infant under a radiant warmer
• B. Move the probe site every 3 hours
• C. Heat the skin one minute prior to placing the probe
• D. Place the sensor on the index finger

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

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