a nurse in a providers office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication which client information
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ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who reports a decrease in the effectiveness of their arthritis medication. Which client information should the nurse identify as a contributing factor to the decrease in the medication's effectiveness?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A history of recurring bowel inflammation can impact the absorption and effectiveness of arthritis medication. Bowel inflammation can affect the body's ability to absorb the medication properly, leading to decreased effectiveness. Choices A, B, and D do not directly relate to the decreased effectiveness of the arthritis medication. Taking medication with water, skipping doses, or taking anti-inflammatory medication without food may not be ideal practices but are not directly linked to the decrease in effectiveness reported by the client.

2. A nurse is assessing a client with suspected myocardial infarction. Which finding supports this diagnosis?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pain radiating to the left arm is a classic symptom of myocardial infarction, commonly known as a heart attack. This occurs due to the referred pain pathways shared by the heart and the left arm. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Pain relieved by rest (choice B) is more indicative of musculoskeletal pain rather than cardiac-related pain. Pain worsening with deep breathing (choice C) is often seen in conditions like pleurisy or pulmonary embolism, not myocardial infarction. Pain relieved by antacids (choice D) suggests gastrointestinal issues like heartburn or acid reflux, not cardiac-related pain.

3. A nurse is in the emergency department monitoring the hydration status of a client receiving oral rehydration. What should the nurse intervene for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 120/min may indicate dehydration or inadequate hydration, prompting the need for IV fluid replacement. Elevated heart rate is a sensitive indicator of dehydration as the body attempts to maintain cardiac output. Urine output of 30 mL/hour is within the normal range (30 mL/hour is the minimum acceptable urine output for an adult). Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range. Normal skin turgor is a positive sign indicating adequate hydration.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL. Which of the following clinical manifestations is associated with this finding?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Detailed Rationale: A blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia. Thirst (polydipsia) is a common clinical manifestation associated with hyperglycemia. The body tries to compensate for the high blood sugar by increasing fluid intake. Confusion (choice A) is more commonly associated with hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Diaphoresis (choice C) and shakiness (choice D) are typical manifestations of hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Therefore, the correct answer is increased thirst (polydipsia) in response to the elevated blood glucose level.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is being taught about lifestyle modifications by a nurse. What dietary change should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Limit alcohol consumption. When managing hypertension, it is crucial to reduce alcohol intake as it can raise blood pressure. High alcohol consumption can also interfere with the effectiveness of antihypertensive medications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing sodium intake (Choice A) is not recommended for hypertension as it can lead to fluid retention and elevated blood pressure. Eating a high-protein diet (Choice C) or following a high-fat diet (Choice D) are also not ideal for managing hypertension, as they can have negative impacts on cardiovascular health.

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