ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Elevated heart rate
- D. Improved lung sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.
2. A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation and notes that the client has gained 5 pounds in one week. Which of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?
- A. Preeclampsia
- B. Gestational diabetes
- C. Anemia
- D. Placenta previa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preeclampsia. Rapid weight gain, especially in the third trimester, can be a sign of preeclampsia, a condition characterized by hypertension, edema, and proteinuria. This requires immediate medical attention. Choice B, Gestational diabetes, is incorrect because rapid weight gain is not a typical symptom of gestational diabetes. Choice C, Anemia, is incorrect as weight gain is not a common sign of anemia in pregnancy. Choice D, Placenta previa, is also incorrect because weight gain is not a typical symptom of this condition, which involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide to a client who has a prescription. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
- B. I will weigh myself every day.
- C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
- D. I will limit my intake of fish.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. There is no need to limit fish intake with furosemide, indicating a misunderstanding of dietary restrictions. Furosemide is a diuretic that helps the body get rid of excess water and salt. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions for a client taking furosemide. Taking morning pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, weighing oneself daily helps monitor fluid retention, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps can be important due to potential electrolyte imbalances.
4. A healthcare professional is verifying nasogastric tube placement by the pH of aspirated gastric fluid. Which of the following pH values provides a good indication of correct tube placement?
- A. 2
- B. 5
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: '2'. Gastric contents with a pH between 0 and 4 provide a good indication of appropriate tube placement. A pH of 2 is within this range, indicating that the tube is correctly placed in the stomach. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a pH of 5, 7, or 9 does not fall within the expected acidic pH range of gastric fluid.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Which food selection indicates an understanding of dietary teaching?
- A. Cottage cheese
- B. Tuna salad
- C. Rice with black beans
- D. Three-egg omelet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Rice with black beans.' Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit animal proteins due to their high ammonia content, which can exacerbate symptoms. Plant-based proteins like beans are preferred as they help reduce ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and D contain animal proteins that are not ideal for clients with hepatic encephalopathy.
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