Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Increased energy
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Improved lung sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Peripheral edema. In heart failure, the heart's inability to pump effectively can lead to fluid backup, causing swelling in the extremities, known as peripheral edema. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial as it is a common sign of worsening heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased energy, elevated heart rate, and improved lung sounds are not typical findings in heart failure. Increased energy is not usually associated with heart failure, an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism but is not a direct sign of heart failure, and improved lung sounds are not expected in heart failure which often presents with crackles or wheezes due to pulmonary congestion.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following interventions should be taken during phototherapy?

• A. Maintain an eye mask over the newborn's eyes
• B. Feed the newborn every hour
• C. Monitor the newborn's temperature
• D. Administer vitamin K

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During phototherapy for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia, it is crucial to maintain an eye mask over the newborn's eyes. The purpose of the eye mask is to protect the infant's eyes from potential damage caused by the intense light used in phototherapy. While feeding the newborn frequently and monitoring temperature are essential aspects of newborn care, they are not specific to phototherapy. Administering vitamin K is important for newborns to prevent bleeding disorders but is not directly related to phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia.

3. Four clients present to the emergency department. The nurse should plan to see which of the following clients first?

• A. A 6-year-old client with a dislocated shoulder
• B. A 26-year-old client with sickle cell disease and severe joint pain
• C. A 76-year-old client who is confused, febrile, and has foul-smelling urine
• D. A 50-year-old client who has slurred speech and reports a headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client with slurred speech and a headache may be experiencing a stroke, which is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent irreversible brain damage. While each client requires prompt assessment and care, the priority is to address potentially life-threatening conditions first. Choices A, B, and C, although important, do not present with symptoms as critical as those of a possible stroke, which necessitates urgent intervention.

4. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client following a below-the-knee amputation. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods.
• B. Sleep with a pillow under the residual limb.
• C. Elevate the limb continuously for the first 48 hours.
• D. Apply lotion to the residual limb daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sitting in a chair for prolonged periods. This is important to prevent contractures from developing in the residual limb. Sleeping with a pillow under the residual limb can contribute to contracture formation rather than prevent it. While elevation of the limb is important for reducing swelling and promoting circulation, continuous elevation for 48 hours is not necessary and may not be practical. Applying lotion to the residual limb daily is generally not recommended immediately post-amputation as the wound site needs to heal without interference from lotions or creams.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. The client has a peripheral IV and has a prescription for an infusion of 0.9% sodium chloride 1,000 mL with 40 mEq potassium chloride to infuse over 1 hr. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Teach the client to report findings of IV extravasation
• B. Evaluate the patency of the IV
• C. Consult with the pharmacist about the prescription
• D. Verify the prescription with the provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action is to verify the prescription with the provider. Verifying the prescription ensures patient safety by preventing fluid volume overload and dysrhythmias, which can result from infusing potassium too rapidly. Teaching the client about IV extravasation, evaluating IV patency, and consulting with the pharmacist are important but should come after verifying the prescription to ensure the ordered treatment is appropriate and safe for the client's condition.

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