a nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia which of the following is the priority assessment
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

2. A patient is scheduled for cataract surgery but decides to cancel, stating 'I see just fine.' Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the patient to share more about their concerns. This approach helps the nurse understand the patient's perspective and allows for a supportive discussion. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the patient's feelings. Choice C may undermine the patient's autonomy and decision-making. Choice D suggests delaying without addressing the patient's current decision.

3. A client is prescribed digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apical pulse. Digoxin's primary effect is to strengthen the force of the heart's contractions and slow the heart rate. Monitoring the apical pulse is crucial in evaluating the effectiveness of digoxin as it helps assess the medication's impact on the heart's function. Option A, respiratory rate, is not directly related to digoxin's mechanism of action and is not the most appropriate parameter to monitor for this medication. Option B, blood pressure, while important, may not be as sensitive as the apical pulse in assessing the effectiveness of digoxin. Option D, urine output, is more indicative of kidney function and fluid balance, rather than the direct effectiveness of digoxin in heart failure.

4. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

5. A nurse is discussing immunity with a client who has received an immunization. The nurse should identify that an immunization functions as part of which of the following types of immunity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Immunizations provide acquired immunity. They work by introducing antigens into the body, which triggers the immune system to produce antibodies specific to that antigen. Choice A, 'Innate immunity,' refers to the natural defense mechanisms an organism is born with and does not involve immunizations. Choice B, 'Passive immunity,' is the transfer of pre-formed antibodies and does not involve immunizations. Choice D, 'Natural immunity,' is a general term that encompasses all immunity that is not acquired through deliberate immunization or passive transfer of antibodies.

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