a nurse is caring for a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia which of the following is the priority assessment
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

2. A nurse is conducting an infertility assessment for a newly admitted client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as affecting the client's fertility?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Premature ovarian failure should be identified as affecting the client's fertility. It leads to reduced or absent ovarian function, resulting in decreased estrogen production and irregular menstrual cycles, which can impact fertility. Renal calculi, dysmenorrhea, and recurrent urinary tract infections do not directly affect fertility and are not typically associated with infertility assessments. Renal calculi are kidney stones that do not directly relate to reproductive health. Dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation but does not necessarily indicate infertility. Recurrent urinary tract infections primarily affect the urinary system and do not directly impact fertility.

3. A nurse is preparing a client for a colonoscopy. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe as an anesthetic for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Propofol. Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic medication commonly used to induce moderate sedation for procedures like a colonoscopy. This medication provides rapid onset and recovery, making it an ideal choice for such procedures. Choice B, Pancuronium, is a neuromuscular blocking agent used for muscle relaxation during surgery and would not be appropriate for sedation during a colonoscopy. Choice C, Promethazine, is an antihistamine used for nausea and motion sickness, not for anesthesia. Choice D, Pentoxifylline, is a medication used to improve blood flow in patients with circulation problems and is not indicated for anesthesia during a colonoscopy.

4. While receiving a change of shift report on a group of clients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with a fractured femur and sharp chest pain first. Sharp chest pain in this client may indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening condition requiring immediate attention. The other options describe important patient conditions but do not pose an immediate threat to life like a potential pulmonary embolism does.

5. A healthcare provider is educating a client about the use of finasteride. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: The healthcare provider should inform the client that finasteride may take several months to show therapeutic effects for conditions like hair loss or benign prostatic hyperplasia. Choice A is incorrect as finasteride is not used to treat hypertension. Choice B is incorrect because finasteride is actually used to treat hair loss, not cause it. Choice D is incorrect as finasteride is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of harm to a male fetus.

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