Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and has preeclampsia is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following is the priority assessment?

• A. Level of consciousness
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Urinary output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Blood pressure is the priority assessment in clients with preeclampsia because hypertension is the primary symptom of the condition. Elevated blood pressure increases the risk of complications such as eclampsia and placental abruption. Assessing the blood pressure helps in monitoring the severity of the preeclampsia and guiding appropriate interventions. While monitoring the client's level of consciousness, deep tendon reflexes, and urinary output are important, they are secondary assessments in the context of preeclampsia.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?

• A. Table salt
• B. Egg yolks
• C. White wine
• D. Oranges

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.

3. A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of prednisone. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It should not be stopped abruptly
• B. It may cause weight gain
• C. It has no side effects
• D. Take it regularly regardless of symptoms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Prednisone can cause weight gain and other side effects, so clients should be informed about these potential risks. Choice A is incorrect because prednisone should not be stopped abruptly to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice C is incorrect because prednisone can have various side effects. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone is usually prescribed with specific dosing instructions and should not be taken irregularly or only when symptoms occur.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an anticoagulant
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. It can be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

5. A nurse is caring for a newborn who has respiratory distress. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• B. Place the newborn in a prone position
• C. Suction the newborn's airway
• D. Notify the healthcare provider

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In cases of respiratory distress, the nurse should first suction the newborn's airway to clear any obstructions. This is a priority intervention as it helps ensure the airway is patent and allows for effective breathing. Administering oxygen, placing the newborn in a prone position, and notifying the healthcare provider are all important actions but should come after ensuring the airway is clear. Administering oxygen may not be effective if the airway is obstructed. Placing the newborn in a prone position can worsen respiratory distress in infants. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to clear the airway takes precedence in this situation.

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