Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

2. The nurse is caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client to prevent bleeding complications?

• A. Use a soft-bristle toothbrush and electric razor.
• B. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods.
• C. Take aspirin if you have a headache.
• D. Avoid using ice packs for injuries.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to prevent bleeding complications in a client on anticoagulant therapy is to use a soft-bristle toothbrush and an electric razor. These implements help reduce the risk of bleeding by being gentle on the skin and reducing the chances of cuts or abrasions that could lead to bleeding in individuals on anticoagulants. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with the action of anticoagulants. Choice C is incorrect as aspirin is a blood thinner and can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with anticoagulant therapy. Choice D is incorrect as ice packs can help reduce bleeding and swelling in injuries, but in a client on anticoagulant therapy, it is important to avoid potential trauma to the skin that could lead to bleeding.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a unit of packed red blood cells to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Prime the blood tubing with normal saline.
• B. Verify the client’s identity using two identifiers.
• C. Infuse the blood rapidly over 30 minutes.
• D. Obtain the client’s vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verifying the client’s identity using two identifiers is a critical patient safety measure to ensure the correct patient receives the blood transfusion. This process involves checking the patient's identity using at least two unique identifiers, such as name, date of birth, or medical record number, to prevent administration errors. Priming the blood tubing with normal saline is necessary to ensure there are no air bubbles in the tubing, but it is not the immediate action required before administering the blood. Infusing packed red blood cells over 30 minutes is generally too rapid and can lead to adverse reactions; a slower rate is recommended for safe administration. Obtaining vital signs every 4 hours during the transfusion is not frequent enough to monitor the client adequately for potential transfusion reactions or complications; vital signs should be monitored more frequently, especially during the initial phase of the transfusion.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor for that indicates toxicity?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should monitor the client for an increased heart rate, as it can indicate a dangerous level of theophylline in the body. Prompt medical attention is required if tachycardia is observed to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, drowsiness, and tremors are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. While theophylline can cause gastrointestinal upset or central nervous system effects, tachycardia is a more specific and serious indicator of toxicity that requires immediate attention.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

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