ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.
2. The client at risk for thrombophlebitis receives reinforcement from the LPN/LVN regarding measures to minimize its occurrence. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this information?
- A. I should avoid sitting for prolonged periods.
- B. I will take frequent walks and avoid prolonged bed rest.
- C. I should drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated.
- D. I will use compression stockings as advised by my doctor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking frequent walks and avoiding prolonged bed rest are essential measures to promote circulation and reduce the risk of thrombophlebitis. Physical activity helps prevent blood from pooling and clotting in the veins, thus decreasing the likelihood of thrombophlebitis development. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding prolonged sitting is important, it is not as effective as engaging in physical activity. Choice C is not directly related to preventing thrombophlebitis. Choice D, using compression stockings, is a helpful measure but not as effective as regular physical activity in preventing thrombophlebitis.
3. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypochloremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.
4. A client has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.
- B. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. You should avoid eating foods high in tyramine.
- D. You should avoid taking this medication with milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.' Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking clozapine on an empty stomach, avoiding foods high in tyramine, or avoiding taking the medication with milk are not specific instructions related to the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis associated with clozapine.
5. The client with diabetes mellitus has gangrene of the toes to the midfoot. Which goal should be included in this client's plan of care?
- A. Restore skin integrity.
- B. Prevent infection.
- C. Promote healing.
- D. Improve nutrition.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Preventing infection is crucial in clients with gangrene to halt the spread of infection and avert further complications. Infections can exacerbate tissue damage and lead to systemic complications, making infection prevention a priority in the care plan for this client. Restoring skin integrity and promoting healing may not be achievable goals until the infection is under control. Improving nutrition is important for overall health but may not be the priority when the immediate concern is preventing infection.
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