Nursing Elites

1. During the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following findings should a nurse recognize as an expected physiologic change?

• A. Gradual lordosis
• B. Increased abdominal muscle tone
• C. Posterior neck flexion
• D. Decreased mobility of pelvic joints

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During pregnancy, gradual lordosis is a common adaptation to the growing fetus. Lordosis refers to an increased lumbar curve in the spine, which helps to shift the center of gravity forward, supporting the enlarging uterus. This change is necessary to maintain balance and reduce strain on the back muscles as the pregnancy progresses. Increased abdominal muscle tone, posterior neck flexion, and decreased mobility of pelvic joints are not typical physiological changes during pregnancy. Increased abdominal muscle tone is not expected as the abdominal muscles tend to stretch and separate to accommodate the growing fetus. Posterior neck flexion is not a common finding and decreased mobility of pelvic joints is not an expected change and can cause discomfort.

2. A client who is at 42 weeks gestation and in labor asks the nurse what to expect because the baby is postmature. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Your baby will have excess baby fat.
• B. Your baby will have flat areola without breast buds.
• C. Your baby's heels will easily move to his ears.
• D. Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Your baby's skin will have a leathery appearance.' Postmature infants, born after 42 weeks of gestation, may have a leathery appearance of the skin due to prolonged exposure to amniotic fluid. This occurs as the protective vernix caseosa is shed, and the skin loses its protective covering, leading to a wrinkled and dry appearance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Excess baby fat is not a typical characteristic of postmature infants. Flat areola without breast buds and the ability of the baby's heels to easily move to his ears are not associated with postmaturity.

3. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

4. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?

• A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
• B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
• C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
• D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.

5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening

• A. A,B,C,D
• B. D,B,A,C
• C. A,D,B,C
• D. A,C,D,B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes during pregnancy is as follows: Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix), Quickening (first fetal movements felt by the mother), and Lightening (baby descending into the pelvis). These changes occur at different stages of pregnancy and are important indicators of fetal development and maternal adaptation. Choice A is correct as it is the initial change indicating possible pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D follow in the correct order of occurrence during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes.

Similar Questions