Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

2. A nurse is assisting the nurse manager with an educational session about ways to prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements by one of the session participants indicates understanding?

• A. Seeking an immunization against rubella early in pregnancy.
• B. Receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus if detected during pregnancy.
• C. Clients should avoid crowded places during pregnancy.
• D. Clients should avoid consuming undercooked meat while pregnant.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. To prevent TORCH infections during pregnancy, it is essential for clients to avoid consuming undercooked meat, as it can be a potential source of toxoplasmosis. This infection, along with others in the TORCH group, can pose risks to the fetus, making it crucial for pregnant individuals to follow proper food safety practices. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because seeking an immunization against rubella, receiving prophylactic treatment for cytomegalovirus, and avoiding crowded places are not directly related to preventing TORCH infections through food safety measures.

3. During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?

• A. Maternal fever
• B. Fetal heart failure
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia
• D. Fetal head compression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maternal fever can lead to fetal tachycardia due to the transmission of maternal fever to the fetus. This can result in an increased fetal heart rate, making it the correct potential cause in this scenario. Fetal heart failure (choice B) would typically present with bradycardia rather than tachycardia, making it an incorrect choice. Maternal hypoglycemia (choice C) is more likely to cause fetal distress rather than tachycardia. Fetal head compression (choice D) may lead to decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern, but not necessarily tachycardia.

4. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

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