Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

• A. Sunken anterior fontanel
• B. Tenting skin turgor
• C. Flat anterior fontanel
• D. Hyperpnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

• A. Lidocaine
• B. Adenosine
• C. Atropine
• D. Verapamil

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a long arm cast. Which of the following findings indicates a moderate complication when assessing for acute compartment syndrome?

• A. Shortness of breath
• B. Petechiae
• C. Change in mental status
• D. Edema

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Edema is a common sign of acute compartment syndrome, which is a medical emergency caused by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, requiring immediate intervention. Shortness of breath (Choice A) is more indicative of a respiratory issue rather than acute compartment syndrome. Petechiae (Choice B) are pinpoint, round spots that appear on the skin due to bleeding under the skin and are not typically associated with acute compartment syndrome. Change in mental status (Choice C) is more suggestive of neurological issues rather than acute compartment syndrome.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for potential complications after surgery. Which of the following should the healthcare professional monitor for?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Improved mobility
• D. Normal temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased urine output can indicate renal complications or dehydration, which are common post-surgical complications. Monitoring urine output is crucial for detecting early signs of kidney dysfunction or fluid imbalances. Increased appetite, improved mobility, and normal temperature are not typical signs of immediate post-surgical complications and would not be the priority for monitoring in this case.

5. A nurse receives a report on four clients. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client scheduled for chemotherapy with a hemoglobin of 9 g/dL
• B. A client 24 hours post-TURP with small blood clots in the catheter
• C. A client receiving a blood transfusion who reports low back pain
• D. A client with a new colostomy and a reddish-pink stoma

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Low back pain during a blood transfusion is a classic sign of a transfusion reaction, specifically a transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) or hemolytic reaction, both of which require immediate attention to prevent serious complications. Assessing this client first is crucial to ensure prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening complications and can be addressed after the client experiencing low back pain during a blood transfusion is stabilized.

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