a nurse is assessing a client who has severe dehydration which finding indicates effective treatment
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Nursing Elites

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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hyperglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst is a classic symptom of hyperglycemia due to the body trying to eliminate excess glucose through urine, leading to dehydration and increased thirst. Weight gain, decreased urination, and fatigue are not typical signs of hyperglycemia. Weight gain is more commonly associated with conditions like hypothyroidism or fluid retention. Decreased urination is not a typical symptom of hyperglycemia, as high blood sugar levels usually lead to increased urination. Fatigue can be a symptom of hyperglycemia, but it is not as specific or characteristic as increased thirst.

3. A nurse is caring for a client at 32 weeks gestation with a history of cardiac disease. Which position should the nurse recommend to promote optimal cardiac output?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The left lateral position is the correct choice to promote optimal cardiac output in a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation with cardiac disease. This position improves venous return and decreases pressure on the vena cava, helping optimize cardiac output. Standing (choice B) would not be recommended as it may decrease venous return. The supine position (choice C) should be avoided in pregnant clients with cardiac disease as it can compress the vena cava, reducing cardiac output and potentially causing hypotension. The chest (choice A) is not a valid position recommendation for optimizing cardiac output in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider plan to administer?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client presents with bradycardia, diaphoresis, and chest pain, indicating reduced cardiac output. Atropine is the appropriate choice as it increases heart rate by blocking the parasympathetic nervous system. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias, Adenosine for supraventricular tachycardia, and Verapamil for controlling heart rate in atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. These medications are not suitable for the client's current presentation.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

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