a nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal failure which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B with NGN

1. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.

2. While caring for a client in active labor, a nurse notes late decelerations in the FHR on the external fetal monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse to take is to change the client's position. This intervention can alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially improving fetal oxygenation and addressing the underlying cause of late decelerations. Palpating the uterus to assess for tachysystole or increasing the IV infusion rate are not the first-line interventions for addressing late decelerations. Administering oxygen at a high flow rate via a nonrebreather mask may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has severe dehydration. Which finding indicates effective treatment?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A flat anterior fontanel indicates effective treatment for dehydration in infants. Dehydration often causes sunken fontanels, so when the anterior fontanel becomes flat, it suggests that rehydration has occurred. Sunken anterior fontanel (Choice A) is a sign of dehydration, not effective treatment. Tenting skin turgor (Choice B) is also a sign of dehydration, indicating poor skin turgor. Hyperpnea (Choice D) is increased depth and rate of breathing and is not directly related to the hydration status of the client.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Define the characteristics of the ulcer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stage 2 ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss with visible and superficial damage, which may appear as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater. Choice A describes a Stage 1 pressure ulcer characterized by intact skin with nonblanchable redness. Choice B describes a Stage 3 pressure ulcer with full-thickness tissue loss and damage to the subcutaneous tissue. Choice D is indicative of a Stage 4 pressure ulcer, involving full-thickness tissue loss with damage extending to muscle or bone.

5. A nurse is caring for a client prescribed montelukast. Which of the following should the nurse include in teaching related to this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to take the medication once daily at bedtime. Montelukast, a leukotriene modifier, is used for long-term therapy of asthma in adults and children, as well as to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. It should be taken once daily in the evening for optimal effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because montelukast is not for acute management but for long-term therapy. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to avoid dairy products while taking montelukast. Choice D is incorrect and potentially harmful advice; clients should never double up on doses if they forget to take a medication.

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