Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of renal failure is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Fluid intake
• B. Electrolyte levels
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Both B and C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with renal failure are at risk for electrolyte imbalances and hypertension. Monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial because renal failure can lead to imbalances in sodium, potassium, and other electrolytes. Blood pressure monitoring is essential as hypertension is a common complication of renal failure. Therefore, both electrolyte levels and blood pressure should be closely monitored to detect and manage any abnormalities. Fluid intake, while important, is not specific to renal failure monitoring and is not the priority in this case.

2. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about measures to prevent the development of skin cancer. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid going outside between 1000 and 1600.
• B. I will wear a wide-brimmed hat when I go outside.
• C. I will make sure to apply sunscreen with SPF 10 when I’m in the sun.
• D. I will reapply my sunscreen every 2 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An SPF of at least 15 is recommended to effectively protect against harmful UV rays. A sunscreen with an SPF of 10 is insufficient and does not provide adequate protection against skin cancer. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of sun protection measures, such as avoiding peak sun hours, wearing protective clothing like a wide-brimmed hat, and reapplying sunscreen every 2 hours, which are all effective strategies to prevent skin cancer.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as a positive Kernig’s sign?

• A. After stroking the lateral area of the foot, the client’s toes contract and draw together
• B. After hip flexion, the client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain
• C. The client’s voluntary movement is not coordinated
• D. The client reports pain and stiffness when flexing their neck

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive Kernig’s sign is identified when a client is unable to extend their leg completely without pain after hip flexion. This finding indicates meningeal irritation. Choices A, C, and D do not describe Kernig’s sign. Choice A describes a normal plantar reflex, choice C refers to coordination issues, and choice D describes neck pain and stiffness, which are not specific to Kernig’s sign.

4. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of clopidogrel. Which of the following should be included?

• A. It is an anticoagulant
• B. Monitor for signs of bleeding
• C. It can be stopped abruptly
• D. Avoid foods rich in vitamin K

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for signs of bleeding.' Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, not an anticoagulant. Clients taking clopidogrel should be monitored for signs of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice A is incorrect because clopidogrel is not an anticoagulant. Choice C is incorrect as clopidogrel should not be stopped abruptly but as directed by a healthcare provider. Choice D is irrelevant since foods rich in vitamin K are more of a concern with anticoagulant medications like warfarin, not antiplatelet medications like clopidogrel.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Which of the following should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Slurred speech
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated heart rate
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of stroke. Slurred speech is a common sign of stroke and should be assessed immediately. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, elevated heart rate, and hyperactivity are not typical signs of a stroke.

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