Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Increased urination
• B. Tremors
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.

2. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
• D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse give to the client regarding lifestyle changes?

• A. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
• C. Take your medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Eat a diet low in protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using an electric razor is advised to prevent cuts, which is crucial for individuals taking warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding associated with this medication. Lifestyle changes related to warfarin therapy focus on minimizing the risk of bleeding, and using safety measures such as an electric razor is a practical recommendation to reduce the likelihood of injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing is more related to preventing blood clots than to the bleeding risk of warfarin. Taking warfarin with a full glass of water is not a specific lifestyle change associated with its use. Eating a diet low in protein is not a typical recommendation for individuals on warfarin therapy.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hypotension, particularly following the initial dose or dosage escalation. This effect is due to the medication's mechanism of action in dilating blood vessels, which can result in lowered blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or fainting in clients taking enalapril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not typically cause hypertension, tachycardia, or hyperglycemia as adverse effects.

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