Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
• C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
• D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.

2. The patient with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin. What instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if experiencing ringing in the ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking aspirin with food is recommended to prevent gastrointestinal irritation and upset, which are common side effects of aspirin. It helps protect the stomach lining and reduce the risk of developing ulcers. This instruction is crucial in promoting medication adherence and minimizing discomfort for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing aspirin without consulting a healthcare provider, taking it at bedtime, or avoiding it if taking other NSAIDs can have negative consequences on the patient's health and treatment plan.

3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

4. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

5. Prior to a dipyridamole thallium scan, what substance should the LPN/LVN ensure the client has not consumed?

• A. Caffeine
• B. Fatty meal
• C. Excess sugar
• D. Milk products

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Caffeine should be avoided before a dipyridamole thallium scan as it can interfere with the test results. Caffeine is a stimulant that can affect the heart rate and may lead to inaccurate findings during the scan. Fatty meals, excess sugar, and milk products do not specifically interfere with the dipyridamole thallium scan procedure. Therefore, it is essential for the LPN/LVN to check and ensure that the client has not consumed caffeine prior to the procedure to obtain accurate diagnostic results.

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