Nursing Elites

1. The client with a history of angina pectoris is being discharged after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
• B. I will call the doctor if I develop a fever or drainage from my incisions.
• C. I will take my pain medication before doing any activities that might cause discomfort.
• D. I can resume my normal activities, including driving, as soon as I feel like it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because after CABG surgery, patients need to follow specific guidelines for resuming activities, and driving is typically restricted for a certain period to ensure safety and proper recovery. Resuming normal activities too soon, including driving, can pose risks to the client's health and safety. It is essential to emphasize to the client the importance of following the healthcare provider's recommendations regarding activity restrictions post-surgery to prevent complications and promote optimal recovery. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that align with post-CABG discharge instructions, emphasizing the importance of avoiding heavy lifting, monitoring for signs of infection, and managing pain effectively.

2. A client with peripheral artery disease (PAD) complains of pain in the legs while walking. Which instruction should the LPN/LVN reinforce to help alleviate the client's symptoms?

• A. Walk until the pain becomes severe, then rest.
• B. Perform leg exercises while sitting.
• C. Elevate the legs on pillows while resting.
• D. Take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to take frequent breaks and walk shorter distances. This instruction helps alleviate symptoms in clients with peripheral artery disease (PAD) by allowing them to manage pain and discomfort more effectively. Option A is incorrect as waiting for the pain to become severe before resting can exacerbate symptoms. Option B, performing leg exercises while sitting, may not directly address the issue of pain during walking. Option C, elevating the legs on pillows while resting, is beneficial for other conditions like edema but may not specifically help alleviate pain while walking in PAD clients.

3. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?

• A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
• B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
• C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
• D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

5. A client has a new prescription for rifampin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids.
• C. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• D. Avoid consuming dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to inform the client to expect red-orange discoloration of body fluids when taking rifampin. Rifampin is known to cause this side effect, which is harmless but can be surprising to patients. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this expected change to prevent unnecessary concern or alarm. Monitoring for hyperglycemia is not directly related to rifampin, and taking the medication with food or avoiding dairy products are not specific instructions for this medication.

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