Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.

2. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase sertraline levels, leading to an elevated risk of side effects. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent potential interactions that could impact the effectiveness and safety of the medication. The other options are not directly related to sertraline administration. Taking the medication in the morning may vary depending on individual preferences or the prescriber's directions. Taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications and not specific to sertraline. Monitoring for signs of weight gain is important but not a direct instruction related to taking sertraline.

3. A client has a new prescription for amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor blood pressure daily.
• C. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed amlodipine, it is essential to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Amlodipine is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it stays within the desired range to prevent complications associated with low blood pressure. Choice A is incorrect because amlodipine can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium intake is not a specific instruction related to amlodipine. Choice D is incorrect as grapefruit juice interactions are not typically a concern with amlodipine.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Increased urination
• B. Tremors
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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