Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

2. The client with myocardial infarction should reduce intake of saturated fat and cholesterol. Which food items from the dietary menu would assist the nurse in helping the client comply with diet therapy?

• A. Cheeseburger, pan-fried potatoes, whole kernel corn, sherbet
• B. Pork chop, baked potato, cauliflower in cheese sauce, ice cream
• C. Baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, sliced strawberries
• D. Spaghetti and sweet sausage in tomato sauce, vanilla pudding (with 4% milk)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Option C, which includes baked haddock, steamed broccoli, herbed rice, and sliced strawberries, is the most appropriate choice for a client with myocardial infarction looking to reduce saturated fat and cholesterol intake. This meal is low in saturated fats and cholesterol, making it a heart-healthy option that aligns with the dietary recommendations for such clients. Choices A, B, and D contain foods high in saturated fats and cholesterol, which are not suitable for a client with myocardial infarction trying to adhere to a diet therapy aimed at reducing these components.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Increase intake of dairy products.
• C. Limit intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Avoid protein-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Avoid foods high in vitamin K. Clients taking warfarin need to be cautious with their vitamin K intake because vitamin K can counteract the effects of the medication. Therefore, it is essential to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the therapeutic effects of warfarin. Choice B is incorrect because increasing dairy product intake is not specifically related to warfarin therapy. Choice C is incorrect as high-fiber foods do not interfere with warfarin therapy. Choice D is incorrect as protein-rich foods are not contraindicated with warfarin therapy.

5. A client has a history of left-sided heart failure. The nurse should look for the presence of which finding to determine whether the problem is currently active?

• A. Presence of ascites
• B. Bilateral lung crackles
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Pedal edema bilaterally

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a history of left-sided heart failure, the presence of bilateral lung crackles is a key finding to determine if the condition is currently active. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation, a common sign of left-sided heart failure due to pulmonary congestion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because ascites, jugular vein distention, and pedal edema are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure.

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