Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

3. What should be the nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin
• B. Have the client sit down
• C. Obtain an electrocardiogram
• D. Apply oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk is to have the client sit down. Sitting down reduces the workload on the heart and may alleviate pain by improving oxygen supply. This action aims to reduce the strain on the heart and improve oxygen delivery to the myocardium, which can help relieve the symptoms of angina pectoris. Administering nitroglycerin could be the next step after having the client sit down if the pain persists. Obtaining an electrocardiogram and applying oxygen are not the immediate priority actions when dealing with angina pectoris symptoms.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is being discharged with a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Store the tablets in a cool, dry place away from light.
• B. Take a tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain occurs.
• C. Place the tablets under the tongue for sublingual absorption.
• D. Take the tablets without water for faster effect.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Nitroglycerin tablets are light and moisture-sensitive, so they should be stored in a cool, dry place away from light to maintain their effectiveness. Option B advises taking a tablet every 5 minutes, which may lead to overdose as this frequency is too high. Option C emphasizes the correct administration route for sublingual tablets. Option D is incorrect as water is not needed for the tablets to take effect.

5. The client is receiving furosemide (Lasix) for heart failure. What potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because hypokalemia can result in cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypoglycemia.

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