Nursing Elites

1. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

2. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

4. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypochloremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.

5. A client has been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Increased heart rate
• C. Decreased TSH levels
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client taking levothyroxine for thyroid hormone replacement, decreased TSH levels indicate that the medication is effective. TSH levels decrease as the thyroid hormone levels are adequately replaced by levothyroxine, signaling a positive response to treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not expected findings indicating the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy. Weight gain may suggest inadequate dosing, while increased heart rate and elevated blood pressure could indicate over-replacement or side effects of the medication.

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