Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

2. A client reports chest pain that is unrelieved by three doses of nitroglycerin taken 5 minutes apart. What is the nurse's next best action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Call the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Provide oxygen via nasal cannula.
• D. Place the client in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client's chest pain persists despite three doses of nitroglycerin, indicating a potentially severe cardiac issue like a myocardial infarction. The priority for the nurse in this situation is to involve the healthcare provider promptly. Calling the healthcare provider immediately is essential to ensure timely evaluation and appropriate intervention for the client. Administering more nitroglycerin without further assessment or instructions may not be safe and could delay necessary treatments. Providing oxygen or changing the client's position may offer some comfort but does not address the underlying potentially life-threatening condition, making these options less appropriate as the immediate next best action.

3. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who will be arriving from the recovery room after an above-the-knee amputation. The nurse ensures that which priority item is available for emergency use?

• A. Surgical tourniquet
• B. Dry sterile dressings
• C. Incentive spirometer
• D. Over-the-bed trapeze

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of an above-the-knee amputation, the priority item that should be available for emergency use is a surgical tourniquet. This is crucial to control severe bleeding that may occur post-operatively. Dry sterile dressings (choice B) are important for wound care but not for immediate post-operative emergencies like bleeding. An incentive spirometer (choice C) is used for respiratory exercises and not directly related to emergency management post-amputation. An over-the-bed trapeze (choice D) is used for assisting clients with mobility and positioning, not for emergency situations involving bleeding.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

5. The client's B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level is 691 pg/mL. Which intervention should the nurse implement when providing care for the client?

• A. Take daily weights and monitor trends.
• B. Encourage fluid intake to improve hydration.
• C. Elevate the legs above the level of the heart.
• D. Position the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated BNP levels are indicative of heart failure, which often causes fluid retention and weight gain. Taking daily weights and monitoring trends allows the nurse to assess for changes in fluid status. This intervention helps in evaluating the effectiveness of the treatment plan and identifying worsening heart failure symptoms early. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) might exacerbate fluid overload in a client with elevated BNP levels. Elevating the legs (Choice C) and positioning the client supine with the head of the bed at 30 degrees (Choice D) are interventions more suitable for clients with hypotension, not specifically indicated for managing elevated BNP levels.

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