Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction (MI). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid engaging in sexual activity for at least 6 weeks.
• B. Engage in moderate physical activity daily.
• C. Take prescribed medications even if you feel well.
• D. Return to work only when medically cleared.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client after a myocardial infarction is to continue taking prescribed medications even if they feel well. This is essential in preventing another myocardial infarction or other complications. Discontinuing medications prematurely can be detrimental to the client's recovery and may increase the risk of further cardiovascular events. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because engaging in sexual activity, physical activity, or returning to work are important aspects of the client's recovery, but not as crucial as ensuring medication compliance to prevent further cardiac issues.

2. The client with chronic stable angina is prescribed a beta blocker. The nurse is reinforcing instructions. What instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a meal.
• B. Report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute.
• C. Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs.
• D. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to report a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute. Beta blockers are known to lower heart rate, and a pulse rate below 60 beats per minute may indicate bradycardia, a condition that requires medical attention. Option A, 'Take the medication with a meal,' is incorrect because beta blockers don't necessarily need to be taken with food. Option C, 'Discontinue the medication if dizziness occurs,' is incorrect because abrupt cessation of beta blockers can lead to rebound hypertension and other adverse effects. Option D, 'Avoid drinking grapefruit juice,' is unrelated to beta blockers' mechanism of action or side effects.

3. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the correct laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, especially with heparin. A prolonged aPTT indicates effective anticoagulation, reducing the risk of further clot formation in the client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The other options, such as complete blood count (CBC), serum electrolytes, and liver function tests, do not directly assess the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Recommend mental health counseling.
• B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
• C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
• D. Provide information about a support group.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.

5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST segment depressions
• C. Shortened P-R intervals
• D. Shortening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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