Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for methotrexate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Increase your intake of folic acid.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing folic acid intake is crucial when taking methotrexate because the medication can lead to folic acid deficiency. Folic acid supplementation helps counteract this deficiency and reduces the risk of adverse effects associated with methotrexate therapy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding dairy products is not specifically necessary for methotrexate therapy. Methotrexate is usually taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal side effects, so taking it on an empty stomach is not recommended. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to methotrexate use.

3. The client will wear a Holter monitor for continuous cardiac monitoring over the next 24 hours. What action should the nurse take to assist the client?

• A. Shave the front of the client's chest
• B. Give the client a device holder to wear around the waist
• C. Teach the client to rest as much as possible during the next 24 hours
• D. Tell the client to cover the monitor in plastic wrap before taking a bath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Providing the client with a device holder to wear around the waist allows them to comfortably carry the Holter monitor while engaging in normal activities throughout the 24-hour monitoring period. This approach supports the client's mobility and ensures the monitor is securely in place for accurate readings. Shaving the front of the client's chest is unnecessary and not a standard practice for Holter monitor placement. Instructing the client to rest as much as possible does not promote normal daily activities which are important for accurate monitoring. Covering the monitor in plastic wrap before bathing is not recommended as it may affect the functionality of the device.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Frequent urination
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Bleeding gums

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bleeding gums are a sign of excessive anticoagulation with warfarin, indicating a potential risk of bleeding complications. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further assessment and adjustment of the medication regimen to prevent serious bleeding events. Weight gain, frequent urination, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with warfarin use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting to the provider.

5. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

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