a nurse is assessing a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

2. What is the initial action the nurse should take for a client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) and is experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority action for a client experiencing restlessness, agitation, and an increased respiratory rate after a myocardial infarction (MI). This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation, improve cardiac function, and reduce the workload on the heart. Oxygen therapy takes precedence over administering medications like morphine sulfate or notifying the healthcare provider as it addresses the immediate need for oxygenation. Checking the blood pressure is also important but not as urgent as ensuring proper oxygen supply.

3. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

4. The client at risk for thrombophlebitis receives reinforcement from the LPN/LVN regarding measures to minimize its occurrence. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking frequent walks and avoiding prolonged bed rest are essential measures to promote circulation and reduce the risk of thrombophlebitis. Physical activity helps prevent blood from pooling and clotting in the veins, thus decreasing the likelihood of thrombophlebitis development. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding prolonged sitting is important, it is not as effective as engaging in physical activity. Choice C is not directly related to preventing thrombophlebitis. Choice D, using compression stockings, is a helpful measure but not as effective as regular physical activity in preventing thrombophlebitis.

5. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.

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