a nurse is assessing a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

2. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can lead to bradycardia, a condition characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate daily is essential to detect any abnormal changes promptly, allowing for timely medical intervention if necessary. Choice A is incorrect because atenolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as atenolol does not interact with potassium-rich foods. Choice D is incorrect as atenolol is usually taken in the morning to help manage blood pressure throughout the day.

3. A client has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure daily. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to detect any potential issues early on. Choice B is incorrect as lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect as lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so additional intake of potassium-rich foods may lead to hyperkalemia. Choice D is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with lisinopril, leading to adverse effects.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and is assisting the client in completing the diet menu. Which beverage does the nurse instruct the client to select from the menu?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lemonade is the correct choice as it is caffeine-free, unlike tea, cola, and coffee, which contain caffeine that can potentially affect the client's heart rhythm. Caffeine can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may not be advisable for a client with a recent MI. Tea, cola, and coffee should be avoided due to their caffeine content, which can have stimulant effects on the heart and may not be beneficial for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction.

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