a nurse is assessing a client who is taking furosemide which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

2. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which dietary change should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' This recommendation is crucial in managing hypertension because excessive sodium intake can lead to elevated blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake helps the body regulate fluid balance and lower blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing red meat intake can worsen hypertension due to its high saturated fat content. Using salt substitutes liberally can also be harmful as they often contain high amounts of potassium, which can be problematic for individuals with certain health conditions. Increasing processed foods consumption is generally discouraged in hypertension management due to their high sodium content and low nutritional value.

3. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.

4. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

5. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).

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