Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

2. A client with chronic heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Limit foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. Report any muscle cramps or weakness to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect to urinate more frequently while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce to the client regarding furosemide (Lasix) is to report any muscle cramps or weakness to the healthcare provider. Muscle cramps or weakness may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly can help in preventing complications related to electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is not directly related to furosemide use; in fact, foods high in potassium may be beneficial for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Choice D is a common expected side effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not as crucial to report as potential signs of electrolyte imbalances.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the medication at the same time each day
• B. Avoid green leafy vegetables in your diet
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin K-rich foods
• D. Stop the medication if you notice any bruising

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Taking warfarin at the same time each day is crucial to maintain consistent blood levels and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Consistent timing helps in monitoring and adjusting the dosage as needed to keep the international normalized ratio (INR) within the therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding green leafy vegetables is a misconception; while they are high in vitamin K which antagonizes warfarin, they should not be avoided but consumed in moderation. Increasing vitamin K-rich foods can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness. Stopping the medication due to bruising can be dangerous as it may indicate a clotting problem that the medication is intended to prevent.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who has undergone a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Which action should the nurse take to prevent postoperative complications?

• A. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours.
• B. Maintain the client in a supine position at all times.
• C. Keep the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours.
• D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to prevent overload.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe every 1 to 2 hours is crucial post-CABG surgery to prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis and pneumonia. These actions help to expand lung volume, clear secretions, and prevent the collapse of alveoli. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because maintaining the client in a supine position at all times can lead to complications like decreased lung expansion, keeping the client on bed rest for the first 48 hours may increase the risk of thromboembolism, and restricting fluid intake postoperatively can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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