ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.
2. The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension. What parameter should be checked before administering the medication?
- A. Apical pulse
- B. Serum calcium level
- C. Blood pressure
- D. Respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Before administering a calcium channel blocker to a client with hypertension, the healthcare provider should check the client's blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers are used to lower blood pressure, making it essential to assess the current blood pressure to ensure it is within the appropriate range for administration. Checking the apical pulse (choice A) is not the priority before administering a calcium channel blocker, as the focus should be on blood pressure. Serum calcium level (choice B) is not directly related to the administration of calcium channel blockers for hypertension. Respiratory rate (choice D) is not the primary parameter to check before administering a calcium channel blocker in this scenario.
3. The client is receiving intravenous heparin for the treatment of a pulmonary embolism. Which medication should the nurse ensure is readily available?
- A. Protamine sulfate
- B. Vitamin K
- C. Calcium gluconate
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin, used to reverse its anticoagulant effects. It should be readily available in case of bleeding complications, as it can rapidly neutralize the effects of heparin and prevent excessive bleeding. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin, not heparin (Choice B). Calcium gluconate is used to treat calcium deficiencies, not indicated for heparin therapy (Choice C). Magnesium sulfate is used for conditions like preeclampsia and eclampsia, not for reversing heparin effects (Choice D).
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased heart rate
- C. Heat intolerance
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Heat intolerance. Heat intolerance is a concerning sign of levothyroxine toxicity and should be reported to the provider promptly. Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing the body's thyroid hormones. When a client experiences heat intolerance, it can indicate that the dose of levothyroxine is too high, leading to hyperthyroidism symptoms. Weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not typically associated with levothyroxine toxicity; instead, they are more commonly seen in conditions like hypothyroidism.
5. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Tremors
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.
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