ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions
1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Serum potassium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum glucose
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.
2. What are the MOST important initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn?
- A. Drying and warming the infant, obtaining an APGAR score.
- B. Clearing the airway, keeping the infant warm.
- C. Suctioning the airway, obtaining a heart rate.
- D. Keeping the infant warm, counting respirations.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial initial steps in assessing and managing a newborn involve clearing the airway to ensure proper breathing and keeping the infant warm to maintain body temperature. Airway clearance helps prevent respiratory distress, while warmth is essential to prevent hypothermia, a common issue in newborns. These steps are vital in the immediate care of a newborn to support their transition to extrauterine life and ensure their well-being. Choice A is incorrect because obtaining an APGAR score is important but not as critical as clearing the airway. Choice C is incorrect as suctioning the airway is not always necessary and obtaining a heart rate is secondary to ensuring a clear airway and warmth. Choice D is incorrect because counting respirations is not as immediate and crucial as clearing the airway.
3. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
4. The client has acute pancreatitis. Which nursing intervention is the highest priority?
- A. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
- B. Monitor the client's serum amylase and lipase levels.
- C. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids.
- D. Assess the client's bowel sounds every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication as prescribed is the highest priority when caring for a client with acute pancreatitis. Acute pancreatitis is often associated with severe abdominal pain, and alleviating this pain is crucial for the client's comfort and well-being. Pain management can also help reduce stress on the pancreas and promote recovery. Monitoring serum amylase and lipase levels, encouraging oral intake of clear liquids, and assessing bowel sounds are important interventions but addressing the client's pain takes precedence to provide immediate relief and improve outcomes.
5. The nurse is caring for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions?
- A. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision
- B. Inform the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior
- C. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion
- D. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario described, the manic client is in the seclusion room, and it is most appropriate for the nurse to serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room. This action helps maintain the client's nutritional needs while managing their behavior. Taking the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision (Choice A) may pose safety risks both for the client and others. Informing the client they may go to the dining room when they control their behavior (Choice B) may not be feasible in a manic state. Holding the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion (Choice C) can lead to nutritional deficiencies and does not address the immediate need for nutrition during the episode of mania.
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