Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Significant abdominal distention
• B. Large bowel movements
• C. High-pitched bowel sounds
• D. Copious vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

2. A client with Ménière’s disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage bed rest
• B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
• C. Administer aspirin
• D. Provide a low sodium diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière’s disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. Limiting sodium helps to reduce fluid retention, which in turn decreases the manifestations of Ménière’s disease. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may be necessary during acute episodes but is not a long-term solution. Restricting fluid intake (Choice B) to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying issue of fluid retention associated with Ménière’s disease. Administering aspirin (Choice C) is not recommended for Ménière’s disease as it can worsen symptoms.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is taking warfarin. The nurse notes that the client has a new prescription for amoxicillin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prothrombin time (PT). Amoxicillin can potentiate the effects of warfarin, increasing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring the prothrombin time (PT) is crucial in this situation to assess the client's clotting ability. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because amoxicillin's interaction with warfarin does not directly impact serum potassium, serum sodium, or blood glucose levels.

4. A client at 38 weeks gestation with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 is being admitted. Which of the following questions is most appropriate to ask the client?

• A. Have your membranes ruptured?
• B. Do you have any active lesions?
• C. Are you positive for beta strep?
• D. How far apart are your contractions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate question to ask a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 at 38 weeks gestation is whether they have any active lesions. Active herpes lesions during labor can necessitate a cesarean delivery to prevent neonatal transmission. Asking about ruptured membranes (choice A), beta strep status (choice C), or contraction timing (choice D) is important but not the priority when managing a client with a history of herpes simplex virus 2 due to the high risk of neonatal transmission.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which finding indicates decreased cardiac output?

• A. Shivering
• B. Oliguria
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Constricted pupils

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Oliguria. Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not receiving enough blood to produce an adequate amount of urine. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia or the body's attempt to generate heat. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not directly related to cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) are more indicative of conditions affecting the nervous system or medications.

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