a nurse is assessing a client who has a small bowel obstruction which of the following findings should the nurse expect
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet

1. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

2. A nurse is providing dietary teaching for a client who has chronic cholecystitis. Which of the following diets should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Low fat diet.' A client with chronic cholecystitis should follow a low-fat diet to decrease the frequency of biliary colic episodes. Fats can trigger the release of cholecystokinin, which stimulates the gallbladder to contract, potentially causing pain in individuals with cholecystitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A low potassium diet is prescribed for individuals with specific kidney conditions or on certain medications. A high fiber diet is beneficial for conditions like constipation, diverticulosis, or to promote general bowel health. A low sodium diet is often recommended for conditions like hypertension or heart failure to reduce fluid retention.

3. A nurse is planning discharge teaching for cord care for the parent of a newborn. Which instructions would you include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching for cord care is to keep the cord dry until it falls off naturally. This helps prevent infection, as the cord typically falls off in 10-14 days, not within five days. Instructing the parent to contact the provider if the cord turns black (Choice A) is important to monitor for signs of infection. Cleaning the base of the cord with hydrogen peroxide daily (Choice B) is not recommended as it can delay healing. Stating that the cord stump will fall off in ten days (Choice D) provides a more accurate timeframe compared to the initial estimation of five days.

4. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

5. A client with staphylococcus epidermidis is prescribed vancomycin. Identify the adverse effect associated with this antibiotic therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct adverse effect associated with vancomycin therapy is an infusion reaction, known as Red Man Syndrome. This reaction presents with rashes, flushing, tachycardia, and hypotension. It is essential to administer vancomycin over at least 60 minutes to prevent these symptoms. Hepatotoxicity, constipation, and immunosuppression are not commonly associated with vancomycin use. Ototoxicity and renal toxicity are significant risks with prolonged vancomycin therapy.

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