Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a client with a small bowel obstruction, what finding should a nurse expect?

• A. Significant abdominal distention
• B. Large bowel movements
• C. High-pitched bowel sounds
• D. Copious vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: High-pitched bowel sounds are often heard early in a small bowel obstruction due to increased peristalsis as the bowel tries to overcome the blockage. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal distention is more commonly associated with large bowel obstructions, while large bowel movements and copious vomiting are not typical findings in small bowel obstructions.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who is pregnant about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You do not need to have a full bladder for the procedure
• B. You will not receive magnesium sulfate before the procedure
• C. The procedure will take longer than 30 minutes to complete
• D. You should report if you experience any contractions after the procedure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about amniocentesis is that the client should report if they experience any contractions after the procedure. This is crucial because contractions could indicate preterm labor or other complications following the amniocentesis. Choices A and B are incorrect as a full bladder is not required for the procedure, and magnesium sulfate is not typically given before an amniocentesis. Choice C is incorrect as the procedure usually takes about 20-30 minutes to complete.

3. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• B. Oliguria, increased urine concentration, and an increase in urine specific gravity greater than 1.030
• C. Polyuria
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria (reduced urine output), increased urine concentration, and a urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 are indicative of dehydration, particularly in clients using diuretics excessively. Choice A is incorrect because a urine specific gravity of 1.035 is high, indicating concentrated urine but not specifically dehydration. Choice C, polyuria, refers to increased urine output and is not consistent with dehydration. Choice D, hypotension, is a sign of fluid volume deficit but is not specific to dehydration as described in the scenario.

4. A client is receiving morphine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Liver function
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Blood glucose levels
• D. Bowel sounds

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client is receiving morphine, monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial because morphine can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's breathing to detect any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because morphine primarily affects the respiratory system, not the liver function, blood glucose levels, or bowel sounds.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has mild anxiety. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Feelings of dread
• B. Rapid speech
• C. Purposeless activity
• D. Heightened perceptual field

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In mild anxiety, the client is expected to have a heightened perceptual field. This means that their perception is increased, enhancing their awareness and ability to concentrate. Feelings of dread (Choice A) are more common in moderate to severe anxiety. Rapid speech (Choice B) and purposeless activity (Choice C) are more indicative of moderate to severe anxiety where the individual may exhibit signs of agitation and restlessness.

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