a nurse is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture the nurse should identify what is a risk factor for developing pressu
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of an older adult who has a hip fracture. The healthcare provider should identify what as a risk factor for developing pressure injuries?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Urinary incontinence is a significant risk factor for skin breakdown and pressure injuries. It can lead to prolonged skin exposure to moisture and irritants, increasing the susceptibility to pressure injuries. Advanced age (Choice A) is a risk factor due to changes in skin integrity and decreased tissue viability, but it is not as direct a risk factor as urinary incontinence. Regular skin assessments (Choice C) are important for early detection and prevention but are not a risk factor themselves. Adequate hydration (Choice D) is essential for overall skin health but is not a direct risk factor for pressure injuries.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of enalapril. Which of the following should the nurse assess first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess blood pressure first. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to manage hypertension. It is crucial to evaluate the patient's blood pressure before administering enalapril to ensure it is within safe limits. Assessing other parameters like heart rate, serum creatinine, and potassium levels is also important but assessing blood pressure takes precedence due to the medication's mechanism of action and potential effects on blood pressure regulation.

3. A client is prescribed metronidazole for a bacterial infection. Which of the following should the nurse teach the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.' Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol, leading to symptoms like nausea, vomiting, flushing, and headache. Therefore, clients should be instructed to avoid alcohol consumption. Choice B is incorrect because metronidazole is not considered safe during pregnancy, especially in the first trimester. Choice C is incorrect as metronidazole is not known to cause increased appetite. Choice D is also incorrect as hair loss is not a common side effect of metronidazole.

4. A client with a cystocele is encouraged to exercise to strengthen pelvic floor muscles and prevent pelvic organ prolapse. What exercise will the client need to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: The client with a cystocele should perform Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles, reducing the risk of pelvic organ prolapse and stress urinary incontinence. Kegel exercises specifically target the muscles that support the pelvic organs. Isometric exercises focus on static muscle contractions and may not be as effective as Kegel exercises for strengthening the pelvic floor. Circumduction exercises involve circular movements at joints and are not specific to pelvic floor muscle strengthening. Uterine extension exercises do not directly target the pelvic floor muscles and are not indicated for cystocele management.

5. A healthcare provider is teaching a client about the use of sertraline. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct answer: Monitoring for suicidal thoughts is essential when a client is prescribed sertraline, an antidepressant. Choice A is incorrect because weight gain is not typically associated with sertraline. Choice B is incorrect as sertraline is not an antipsychotic medication. Choice D is incorrect because all medications, including sertraline, have potential side effects.

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