a nurse is caring for a client with a history of asthma which of the following should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A client with a history of asthma is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory status. When caring for a client with asthma, it is essential to monitor their respiratory status to detect any changes in breathing or signs of airway obstruction. Monitoring heart rate (choice A) may be important in some situations but is not the priority when managing asthma. Blood glucose levels (choice C) and liver function (choice D) are not directly related to asthma and would not be the primary focus of monitoring for a client with this condition.

2. A laboring client received meperidine IV one hour prior to delivery. Which of the following medications should the nurse have available to counteract the effects of this medication on the newborn?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Meperidine is an opioid analgesic that can cross the placenta and cause respiratory depression in the newborn. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that is administered to reverse the effects of opioids. It is critical to have Naloxone available when opioids are administered during labor, especially close to delivery. Epinephrine is not used to counteract the effects of opioids but rather for managing severe allergic reactions or cardiac arrest. Atropine is used for specific conditions like bradycardia, not to counteract opioid effects. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety, seizures, and muscle spasms, not for reversing opioid effects.

3. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.

4. A client is prescribed digoxin and has a potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. In this case, the nurse should administer the digoxin without any modifications. Lowering the dose (Choice B) may not be necessary if the potassium level is not critically low. Monitoring serum potassium levels (Choice C) is important but should not delay the administration of digoxin. Discontinuing the medication (Choice D) is not the initial action to take unless the potassium levels become severely low and life-threatening.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Meat and dairy products are consumed separately.' Kosher dietary laws prohibit the consumption of meat and dairy products together. Observing this separation is a key aspect of Jewish dietary practices. Choice A is incorrect as meat and dairy products are not eaten together in kosher dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as fasting does not typically occur during Hanukkah. Choice C is incorrect as shellfish is not eaten in kosher dietary practices due to being non-kosher.

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