a nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment A

1. A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client with dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Sitting at or below the client’s eye level is important when feeding a client with dysphagia. This position allows the nurse to closely observe the client for any signs of difficulty with swallowing, which can help prevent aspiration. Instructing the client to lift their chin when swallowing (choice A) is not recommended for clients with dysphagia as it can increase the risk of aspiration. Discouraging the client from coughing during feedings (choice B) is also not correct, as coughing may be a protective mechanism to prevent aspiration. Talking with the client during feedings (choice D) may distract the client and interfere with their ability to focus on swallowing safely.

2. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has suspected appendicitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A distended, board-like abdomen is a concerning sign indicating the possibility of a ruptured appendix and peritonitis, which are medical emergencies. Reporting this finding immediately is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, an elevated WBC count, could indicate infection but is not as urgent as the risk of a ruptured appendix. Choice C, rebound tenderness over McBurney’s point, is a classic sign of appendicitis but does not indicate an immediate threat like a possible rupture. Choice D, a slightly elevated temperature, is a nonspecific finding and not as critical as the risk of peritonitis associated with a distended, board-like abdomen.

4. A nurse is planning care for an adolescent client with chronic renal failure. Which action should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In chronic renal failure, it is essential to restrict protein intake to the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) to reduce the accumulation of waste products that the kidneys can no longer effectively eliminate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because in chronic renal failure, high calcium, high potassium, and increased fluid intake can further strain the kidneys and worsen the condition.

5. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can cause extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness and muscle spasms, particularly of the face and neck. These symptoms should be reported to the provider immediately. Choice B is incorrect because metoclopramide is not meant to be taken only when feeling nauseous; it is used to treat nausea and vomiting. Choice C is incorrect because it is important to stay hydrated while taking metoclopramide. Choice D is incorrect because metoclopramide is usually taken before meals to improve gastric emptying, not necessarily on an empty stomach.

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