ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Administer it as a bolus
- B. Dilute the medication
- C. Give it rapidly
- D. Monitor respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been prescribed furosemide. Which of the following foods should the nurse encourage the client to include in their diet?
- A. Table salt
- B. Egg yolks
- C. White wine
- D. Oranges
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, so clients should consume potassium-rich foods like oranges to prevent hypokalemia. Oranges are a good source of potassium. Table salt, egg yolks, and white wine do not provide significant amounts of potassium and are not beneficial for a client taking furosemide.
3. A nurse is caring for a client receiving heparin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. INR levels
- B. APTT levels
- C. Blood glucose levels
- D. Liver function tests
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy requires monitoring of activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) to ensure therapeutic levels. APTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to assess the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy. Monitoring INR levels is more relevant for assessing warfarin therapy, not heparin. Blood glucose levels are monitored for clients with diabetes or those on medications affecting glucose levels. Liver function tests are used to assess liver health and are not directly related to monitoring heparin therapy.
4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of anemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse look for?
- A. Increased energy
- B. Pale skin
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Pale skin.' Pale skin is a common sign of anemia due to reduced hemoglobin levels, which affects the skin color. Anemia is characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood, leading to a paler complexion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Increased energy' is not typically associated with anemia, as fatigue is a common symptom. 'Elevated blood pressure' is not a typical finding in anemia; instead, anemia may cause hypotension. 'Weight gain' is not a direct symptom of anemia; in fact, weight loss may occur in some cases due to reduced appetite or other factors associated with anemia.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 8 hours postpartum following a vaginal birth. The client reports passing large clots and heavy bleeding. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the fundus
- B. Administer methylergonovine
- C. Increase the IV fluid rate
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Heavy bleeding and the passage of large clots after childbirth can indicate uterine atony. The nurse should first attempt to massage the fundus to stimulate uterine contractions and control the bleeding. Massaging the fundus helps the uterus to contract and may help prevent further bleeding. Administering methylergonovine (Choice B) is not the initial intervention for uterine atony. Increasing the IV fluid rate (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the bleeding. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after attempting initial interventions like fundal massage.
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