ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Pharmacology 1 Quiz
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of potassium chloride. Which of the following should the professional do?
- A. Administer it as a bolus
- B. Dilute the medication
- C. Give it rapidly
- D. Monitor respiratory rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: Dilute the medication. Potassium chloride should always be diluted before administration to avoid irritation and complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering it as a bolus can lead to adverse effects. Choice C is incorrect as giving it rapidly can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as monitoring the respiratory rate is not directly related to administering potassium chloride.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client in the PACU. Which of the following findings indicates decreased cardiac output?
- A. Shivering
- B. Oliguria
- C. Bradypnea
- D. Constricted pupils
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Oliguria (low urine output) is a sign of decreased cardiac output because the kidneys are not being adequately perfused, leading to reduced urine production. Shivering (choice A) is a response to hypothermia, not directly related to cardiac output. Bradypnea (choice C) refers to abnormally slow breathing rate and is not a direct indicator of decreased cardiac output. Constricted pupils (choice D) can be caused by medications or sympathetic nervous system stimulation but are not specific to decreased cardiac output.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of atorvastatin. Which of the following should be included?
- A. Monitor for muscle pain
- B. It can cause weight gain
- C. It is safe during pregnancy
- D. It is an anticoagulant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for muscle pain.' Atorvastatin can cause muscle pain and liver function abnormalities, so clients should be monitored for these side effects. Choice B is incorrect because atorvastatin is not known to cause weight gain. Choice C is incorrect as atorvastatin is contraindicated during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus. Choice D is incorrect because atorvastatin is a statin medication used to lower cholesterol levels, not an anticoagulant.
4. A client has been prescribed amlodipine for hypertension. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Rash
- D. Headache
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dizziness.' Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, can cause dizziness due to its blood pressure-lowering effects. It is crucial for clients to report dizziness to their healthcare provider as it may indicate hypotension. Dry cough (choice A) is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, rash (choice C) may be seen in allergic reactions, and headache (choice D) is a less common side effect of amlodipine.
5. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes that the infant has yellow-tinged skin. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
- A. Assess the infant's bilirubin levels
- B. Initiate phototherapy
- C. Monitor the infant's temperature
- D. Encourage breastfeeding
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yellow-tinged skin (jaundice) in a newborn can indicate hyperbilirubinemia. The priority action is to assess the infant's bilirubin levels to determine the severity of the jaundice and the need for further interventions, such as phototherapy. Initiating phototherapy (choice B) is premature without knowing the actual bilirubin levels. Monitoring the infant's temperature (choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging breastfeeding (choice D) is beneficial but not the priority when dealing with jaundice in a newborn.
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