ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Weight gain
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.
2. A client has a new prescription for verapamil. Which of the following beverages should the client avoid while taking this medication?
- A. Orange juice
- B. Coffee
- C. Milk
- D. Grapefruit juice
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Grapefruit juice should be avoided while taking verapamil as it can increase drug levels and the risk of side effects. The interaction between grapefruit juice and verapamil can lead to higher concentrations of the medication in the bloodstream, potentially causing adverse effects. Orange juice, coffee, and milk do not have significant interactions with verapamil. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to avoid grapefruit juice to ensure the safe and effective use of verapamil.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.
4. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen level
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.
5. Why should the client diagnosed with rheumatic heart disease be advised to notify the dentist before dental procedures?
- A. The client requires prophylactic antibiotics before treatment.
- B. The client may experience dysrhythmias with high-speed drills.
- C. The client may have an adverse reaction to lidocaine with epinephrine.
- D. The client may develop heart failure during stressful events.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clients with rheumatic heart disease are at risk for infective endocarditis, a serious infection of the heart lining or valves. They need prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures, including dental work, to prevent this life-threatening complication. While dysrhythmias with high-speed drills, adverse reactions to local anesthesia, and the risk of heart failure during stressful events are all concerns for clients with heart conditions, the primary reason for notifying the dentist before dental procedures in rheumatic heart disease is the need for prophylactic antibiotics to prevent infective endocarditis.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access