Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client who has been prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• B. Administer the injection in the same site each time for consistency.
• C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to your healthcare provider.
• D. Do not take aspirin if you experience any mild pain or discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising to their healthcare provider. This is crucial because unusual bleeding or bruising may indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of enoxaparin. Prompt reporting to a healthcare provider is necessary to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to enoxaparin and vitamin K interactions. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is essential for preventing tissue damage and irritation. Choice D is also incorrect as aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with enoxaparin.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypotension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

5. The nurse is informed during shift report that a client is experiencing occasional ventricular dysrhythmias. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results, recalling that which electrolyte imbalance could be responsible for this development?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypochloremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hypokalemia, which is low potassium levels, can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart and lead to ventricular dysrhythmias. Potassium plays a crucial role in maintaining the heart's rhythm, and a deficiency can result in dangerous heart rhythm abnormalities. Hypernatremia (Choice B), which is high sodium levels, does not directly impact heart rhythm. Hypochloremia (Choice C), which is low chloride levels, is not typically associated with ventricular dysrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (Choice D), which is high calcium levels, is not a common cause of ventricular dysrhythmias.

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