Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). The nurse should teach the client about which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Muscle pain
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like atorvastatin. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect, as it can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis, which requires immediate medical attention. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not typically associated with atorvastatin use.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hypertension who is prescribed a thiazide diuretic. The nurse should check which parameter before administering the medication?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Heart rate
• D. Serum sodium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering a thiazide diuretic to a client with hypertension, the nurse should check the blood pressure. Thiazide diuretics are prescribed to lower blood pressure, so assessing the client's blood pressure prior to administration helps to monitor the effectiveness of the medication and to ensure the client's safety. Checking the serum potassium level (Choice A), heart rate (Choice C), or serum sodium level (Choice D) are also important parameters in the care of a client on a thiazide diuretic, but the priority assessment before administering the medication is the blood pressure to evaluate the drug's effectiveness in managing hypertension.

4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

• A. Continue taking your usual dose of beta-blockers
• B. Refrain from eating or drinking anything for 4 hours before the test
• C. Wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes
• D. Avoid any physical activity for 24 hours before the test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.

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