Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

2. After returning the client to bed following a cardiac catheterization procedure with the left femoral vessel as the access site, the nurse places a sign above the bed instructing the client to remain on bed rest and in which position?

• A. In semi-Fowler's position
• B. With the head of the bed elevated 45 degrees
• C. With the head of the bed elevated no more than 15 degrees
• D. With the foot of the bed elevated as much as tolerated by the client

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After cardiac catheterization via the femoral vessel, it is crucial to keep the head of the bed elevated no more than 15 degrees to prevent bleeding at the access site. This position helps maintain pressure on the femoral artery, reducing the risk of bleeding and complications post-procedure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide the necessary pressure on the femoral artery to prevent bleeding, which is essential after a cardiac catheterization procedure with a femoral access site.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Clear lung sounds
• B. Increased peripheral pulses
• C. Bibasilar crackles
• D. Improved activity tolerance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bibasilar crackles are abnormal lung sounds that indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a sign that left-sided heart failure is worsening. This finding suggests that the client's condition is deteriorating and requires prompt intervention to prevent further complications. Clear lung sounds (Choice A) are normal and would not indicate worsening heart failure. Increased peripheral pulses (Choice B) may be seen in conditions like anxiety or exercise, but not specifically in worsening left-sided heart failure. Improved activity tolerance (Choice D) would be a positive sign, not an indicator of worsening heart failure.

5. A client has a new prescription for transdermal nitroglycerin patches. Which of the following instructions should be included for proper use?

• A. Apply the patch to the same site each day.
• B. Place the patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints.
• C. Keep the patch on 24 hours per day.
• D. Replace the patch every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the nitroglycerin patch on an area of skin away from skin folds and joints is crucial to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Placing the patch on skin folds or joints can interfere with absorption, potentially reducing the patch's efficacy. Therefore, it is essential to follow this instruction to maximize the therapeutic benefits of the nitroglycerin patches. The other options are incorrect because applying the patch to the same site each day can lead to skin irritation, keeping the patch on 24 hours per day may not be necessary depending on the specific patch instructions, and replacing the patch every 72 hours is not the standard frequency for nitroglycerin patches.

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