ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypokalemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.
2. A client has a new prescription for amitriptyline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client is prescribed amitriptyline, it is important to instruct them to take the medication with a full glass of water. This instruction helps prevent esophageal irritation, as amitriptyline can be harsh on the esophagus. Option C is the correct choice. Option A, taking the medication in the morning, is not specific to amitriptyline and can vary depending on the individual's condition. Option B, avoiding grapefruit juice, is a general precaution for many medications but not specifically related to amitriptyline. Option D, monitoring for signs of weight gain, is not a direct instruction for taking the medication itself and may not be a common side effect of amitriptyline.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The nurse should reinforce with the client the importance of reporting which potential side effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Headache
- C. Gingival bleeding
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Gingival bleeding.' Gingival bleeding is a common side effect of anticoagulant therapy. Anticoagulants work by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot, which can lead to bleeding issues, including gingival bleeding. Nausea, headache, and dizziness are not typically associated with anticoagulant therapy. Since bleeding, including gingival bleeding, can be a serious side effect that requires medical attention, the client should be educated on reporting it promptly to their healthcare provider.
4. The client is taking interferon alfa-2a (Roferon-A) and ribavirin (Virazole) combination therapy for hepatitis C and reports overwhelming feelings of depression. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Recommend mental health counseling.
- B. Review the medication actions and interactions.
- C. Assess the client's daily activity level.
- D. Provide information about a support group.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to review the medication actions and interactions. Interferon alfa-2a and ribavirin combination therapy for hepatitis C can lead to neuropsychiatric side effects, including depression. By assessing the medication actions and interactions, the nurse can identify if the depression is a known side effect of the medications, and further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan may be required to address the client's emotional well-being. Recommending mental health counseling (choice A) may be necessary but should come after ensuring that the depression is not solely caused by medication side effects. Assessing the client's daily activity level (choice C) and providing information about a support group (choice D) are important interventions but addressing the medication's potential contribution to the depression takes precedence.
5. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?
- A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
- B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
- C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
- D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.
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