a nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction which of the following should the nurse look for
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has breast cancer and has been receiving chemotherapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates neutropenia, a dangerous complication of chemotherapy that increases the risk of infection and requires immediate attention. Neutropenia is a common side effect of chemotherapy and can lead to life-threatening infections. Reporting a low WBC count is crucial to ensure timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not pose immediate risks to the client undergoing chemotherapy.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for vancomycin 1 g IV every 12 hours. The client is scheduled to have the morning dose at 0700. The nurse should schedule the trough level to be drawn at which of the following times?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The trough level of vancomycin should be drawn just before the next dose is administered, typically about 30 minutes before the scheduled dose. Since the morning dose is at 0700, the trough level should be drawn at 1800. This timing ensures an accurate measurement of the lowest concentration of the drug in the client's system before the next dose is given. Choice A (2100) is too close to the next dose, choice B (900) is too early, and choice C (1300) is also too far from the next dose.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postpartum, has a deep-vein thrombosis, and is receiving heparin therapy via subcutaneous injections. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should administer the injection in the abdomen, as this is a common site for subcutaneous heparin administration. Massaging the injection site can lead to bruising or discomfort and should be avoided. Instructing the client not to breastfeed while on heparin is inaccurate, as heparin does not pass into breast milk in significant amounts. Aspirin is contraindicated for clients on heparin due to the increased risk of bleeding, so requesting a prescription for PRN aspirin would not be appropriate in this situation.

5. Using Naegele's Rule, what is the estimated delivery date for a pregnant client whose last menstrual period was on May 4th, 2013?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Naegele's rule is a standard method for calculating the estimated delivery date (EDD). It involves subtracting three months from the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP), adding seven days, and then adding one year. For a client with an LMP of May 4th, 2013, subtracting three months gives February 4th. Adding seven days results in a due date of February 11th, 2014, which is the correct answer. Choice A (January 15, 2014) is incorrect as it does not account for the full calculation. Choice C (March 3, 2014) is incorrect as it adds too many days in the calculation. Choice D (December 25, 2013) is incorrect as it does not follow the correct steps of Naegele's rule.

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