ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B
1. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?
- A. Fever
- B. Rash
- C. Fatigue
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.
2. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication in which way?
- A. Take one tablet daily with breakfast
- B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three times
- C. Take one tablet every hour until pain subsides
- D. Take one tablet only if pain does not subside after 30 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting medication used to relieve angina pain by dilating blood vessels. The correct administration is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three doses. This dosing regimen helps in managing acute angina episodes effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not taken once daily. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for an hour between doses may not provide timely relief during angina attacks. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests waiting for 30 minutes before taking another dose, which could delay symptom relief in acute situations.
3. How should a healthcare provider manage a patient with hyperkalemia?
- A. Administer insulin and glucose
- B. Restrict potassium intake
- C. Monitor ECG
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In managing hyperkalemia, it is essential to administer insulin and glucose to shift potassium into the cells, restrict potassium intake to prevent further elevation of serum levels, and monitor the ECG for signs of potassium-induced cardiac effects. Therefore, the correct answer is D, as all of the provided actions are important in the management of hyperkalemia. Choice A alone is not sufficient as it only addresses shifting potassium intracellularly without preventing further elevation. Choice B alone is not enough as it does not address the immediate need to lower serum potassium levels. Choice C alone is insufficient as it only monitors for cardiac effects without addressing potassium levels or shifting mechanisms.
4. What is the main cause or association of Type 2 diabetes?
- A. Mostly associated with autoantibodies
- B. Mostly associated with childhood cancer
- C. Commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome
- D. Commonly associated with overeating
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is commonly associated with obesity and metabolic syndrome. These conditions are major contributing factors to the development of Type 2 diabetes due to insulin resistance and other metabolic abnormalities linked to excess body weight and unhealthy lifestyle habits.
5. What are the early signs of a pulmonary embolism?
- A. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia
- B. Fever, nausea, and vomiting
- C. Cough, cyanosis, and fatigue
- D. Abdominal pain and bradycardia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain, shortness of breath, and tachycardia. These are classic early signs of a pulmonary embolism. Chest pain may be sudden and sharp, worsened by deep breathing or coughing. Shortness of breath can be sudden and severe. Tachycardia (rapid heart rate) is another common symptom. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not represent typical early signs of a pulmonary embolism.
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