ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment B Quizlet
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IM injection to a 4-month-old infant. Which of the following injection sites should the healthcare professional use?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Deltoid
- C. Dorsogluteal
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The vastus lateralis is the preferred site for IM injections in infants under 1 year of age because it is well developed and easily accessible compared to other muscle groups. The ventrogluteal and deltoid sites are not typically used for infants due to muscle development and size. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for infants or young children due to its proximity to major nerves and blood vessels.
2. A client has a new prescription for oxcarbazepine. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?
- A. Liver function
- B. Serum sodium levels
- C. Blood glucose
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum sodium levels. Oxcarbazepine can lead to hyponatremia, making it crucial to monitor serum sodium levels. Monitoring liver function (choice A) is not typically associated with oxcarbazepine use. Blood glucose (choice C) monitoring is more relevant in medications affecting blood sugar levels. Heart rate (choice D) is not directly impacted by oxcarbazepine.
3. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following should the nurse monitor for?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypercalcemia
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Clients with chronic kidney disease are at risk for hyperkalemia due to impaired potassium excretion. In chronic kidney disease, the kidneys are unable to effectively excrete potassium, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) refers to low blood sugar levels and is not directly related to chronic kidney disease. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels and is not a typical concern in chronic kidney disease.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a latex allergy and is scheduled for surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply tape to the client’s skin before surgery.
- B. Ensure the surgical suite is well-ventilated.
- C. Wrap monitoring cords with stockinette.
- D. Schedule the surgery at the end of the day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to wrap monitoring cords with stockinette. This measure ensures that the latex in the cords does not come into contact with the client’s skin, reducing the risk of an allergic reaction. Applying tape to the client’s skin before surgery (Choice A) may expose the client to latex if the tape contains latex. Ensuring the surgical suite is well-ventilated (Choice B) is important for overall safety but does not specifically address the client's latex allergy. Scheduling the surgery at the end of the day (Choice D) is not directly related to preventing latex exposure and allergic reactions.
5. A patient is receiving chemotherapy and reports nausea. Which of the following dietary recommendations should the nurse make?
- A. Eat foods served hot
- B. Drink liquids between meals
- C. Eat dry cereal
- D. Choose foods with a strong aroma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct recommendation for a patient receiving chemotherapy and experiencing nausea is to suggest eating dry, bland foods like cereal. These types of foods are often better tolerated as they are less likely to trigger nausea compared to aromatic or hot foods. Drinking liquids between meals, as suggested in option B, can be helpful to prevent dehydration but may not specifically address the nausea. Eating foods with a strong aroma, as in option D, may actually worsen nausea in patients undergoing chemotherapy.
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