Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is receiving a report on four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who has an ileal conduit and mucus in the pouch
• B. Client with arteriovenous fistula with additional vibration palpated
• C. A client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow
• D. A client with transurethral resection of the prostate with red-tinged urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assess the client with chronic kidney disease and cloudy dialysate outflow first because cloudy dialysate outflow suggests peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate intervention. Assessing and addressing peritonitis promptly is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices A, B, and D present important findings that require attention but are not as urgent as peritonitis, which can quickly escalate and endanger the client's health.

2. A client is in the transition phase of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assist the client to void every 3 hours
• B. Monitor contractions every 30 minutes
• C. Place the client in a lithotomy position
• D. Encourage the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use a pant-blow breathing pattern is crucial during the transition phase of labor. This phase is characterized by intense contractions and emotional responses. Pant-blow breathing helps manage pain and anxiety, providing comfort and support to the client. Voiding every 3 hours is not specific to the transition phase and may not address immediate needs. Monitoring contractions every 30 minutes is important but may not be as directly beneficial as focusing on coping mechanisms like breathing techniques. Placing the client in a lithotomy position is generally not recommended during the transition phase as it can impede progress and comfort.

3. A nurse is caring for a laboring client and notes that the fetal heart rate begins to decelerate after the contraction has started. The lowest point of deceleration occurs after the peak of the contraction. What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Change the client's position
• C. Increase IV fluids
• D. Call the healthcare provider

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating that the fetus is not receiving adequate oxygen during contractions. This is an emergency that requires prompt intervention. Changing the client's position helps improve placental blood flow, reducing stress on the fetus. Administering oxygen may be necessary if changing position does not resolve the decelerations. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it won't directly address the cause of late decelerations. Calling the healthcare provider should be done after immediate interventions like changing the client's position have been implemented and assessed.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education on foot care. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply lotion between the toes.
• B. Cut toenails straight across.
• C. Use a heating pad to warm the feet.
• D. Soak feet in warm water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cut toenails straight across. This instruction is vital for clients with diabetes as it helps prevent ingrown toenails and infections, reducing the risk of foot ulcers. Applying lotion between the toes (choice A) should be avoided as it can create a moist environment prone to fungal infections. Using a heating pad (choice C) can lead to burns or injuries due to reduced sensation common in diabetes. Soaking feet in warm water daily (choice D) can also increase the risk of skin breakdown and should be avoided.

5. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

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