Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?

• A. Infection
• B. Airway obstruction
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Pain management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional include in the plan of care?

• A. Apply ice packs to the affected extremity.
• B. Encourage ambulation every hour.
• C. Elevate the affected leg when in bed.
• D. Massage the affected area to improve circulation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the affected leg is a crucial intervention in the care of a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). This position helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, which can alleviate symptoms associated with DVT. Applying ice packs (Choice A) may worsen the condition by causing vasoconstriction. Encouraging ambulation (Choice B) can dislodge the clot and lead to fatal complications. Massaging the affected area (Choice D) can also dislodge the clot and is contraindicated in DVT.

3. A charge nurse is planning care for a group of patients on a med-surg unit. What task should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?

• A. Measure hourly urinary output for the postoperative patient.
• B. Administer medications to stable patients.
• C. Reinforce patient education.
• D. Initiate a care plan for a new patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assistive personnel can be assigned to measure and document urinary output, a routine task within their scope of practice. Administering medications (choice B) requires a higher level of training and should be done by licensed nurses. Reinforcing patient education (choice C) involves providing information and ensuring patient understanding, which is typically done by licensed healthcare providers. Initiating a care plan (choice D) involves critical thinking and assessment skills, which are beyond the scope of practice for assistive personnel.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?

• A. 4 g sodium diet
• B. Potassium-restricted diet
• C. High phosphorus diet
• D. High protein diet

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy. Which of the following findings indicates oxygen toxicity?

• A. Oxygen saturation 94%
• B. Decreased respiratory rate
• C. Wheezing
• D. Peripheral cyanosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased respiratory rate. In clients with COPD, especially when receiving oxygen therapy, a decreased respiratory rate is indicative of oxygen toxicity. This occurs because their respiratory drive is often dependent on low oxygen levels. Oxygen saturation of 94% is within an acceptable range and does not necessarily indicate oxygen toxicity. Wheezing is more commonly associated with airway narrowing or constriction, while peripheral cyanosis is a sign of decreased oxygen levels in the peripheral tissues, not oxygen toxicity.

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