Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?

• A. Infection
• B. Airway obstruction
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Pain management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure and a prescription for furosemide 20 mg PO twice daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Monitor for increased blood pressure
• B. Increase intake of high-potassium foods
• C. Expect an increase in swelling in the hands and feet
• D. Take the second dose at bedtime

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Increase intake of high-potassium foods." Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia, a condition characterized by low potassium levels. To prevent this adverse effect, the client should increase their intake of high-potassium foods. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide typically leads to decreased blood pressure, not increased. Choice C is incorrect because furosemide is used to reduce swelling, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because the second dose of furosemide should be taken in the morning to prevent nocturia.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove dirty linens after double-bagging them
• B. Wear a dosimeter badge in the client’s room
• C. Limit visitors to 1 hour per day
• D. Ensure family remains 3 feet away from the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.

4. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:

• A. Migraines
• B. Hypertension
• C. Osteoporosis
• D. Heart disease

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.

5. A client is experiencing suicidal thoughts and states, 'Why not end my misery?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Why do you think your life isn’t worth living anymore?
• B. Do you have a plan to end your life?
• C. I need to understand what you mean by misery.
• D. You can trust me to share your thoughts.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Do you have a plan to end your life?' When a client expresses suicidal thoughts, it is crucial to assess the immediate risk. Inquiring about a specific plan can help determine the seriousness of the situation. Choice A is less direct and may not provide a clear indication of the immediate risk. Choice C focuses on the interpretation of 'misery' rather than assessing the risk of suicide. Choice D offers support but does not address the critical assessment of the client's immediate safety.

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