Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?

• A. Infection
• B. Airway obstruction
• C. Fluid imbalance
• D. Pain management

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin to augment labor. The client has an intrauterine pressure catheter and an internal fetal scalp electrode for monitoring. Which of the following is an indication that the nurse should discontinue the infusion?

• A. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes
• B. Contraction duration of 100 seconds
• C. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability
• D. Fetal heart rate of 118/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A contraction duration of 100 seconds indicates potential uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and decreased uterine perfusion. Prolonged contractions may reduce oxygen supply to the fetus, putting it at risk. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. The other options do not raise immediate concerns that would necessitate discontinuing the oxytocin infusion. Contraction frequency every 3 minutes is within a normal range. Fetal heart rate with moderate variability and a rate of 118/min are both reassuring signs of fetal well-being.

3. When educating a patient on the use of levodopa-carbidopa, which information should the nurse include?

• A. It is a cure for Parkinson's disease
• B. Monitor for dyskinesia
• C. It can be taken at any time
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor for dyskinesia.' Levodopa-carbidopa can cause dyskinesia as a side effect, which is characterized by involuntary muscle movements. Patients need to be monitored for this adverse effect and instructed to report it to their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because levodopa-carbidopa is not a cure for Parkinson's disease, it should be taken at specific times for optimal effect, and it does have side effects, such as dyskinesia.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of hypoglycemia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Increased thirst
• B. Fatigue
• C. Weight gain
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fatigue. Fatigue, along with symptoms like shakiness and irritability, are common signs of hypoglycemia. Increased thirst (Choice A) is more indicative of hyperglycemia. Weight gain (Choice C) is not typically associated with hypoglycemia. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not a common sign of hypoglycemia.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of naloxone. Which of the following should the healthcare professional assess?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Respiratory rate
• C. Blood pressure
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, which can cause respiratory depression. Assessing the respiratory rate before administering naloxone is crucial to monitor the patient's breathing. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments in general patient care but are not specifically crucial before administering naloxone for opioid overdose.

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