a nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full thickness burns of the head neck and chest while planni
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment 2020 B

1. A nurse in the emergency department is caring for a patient who has extensive partial and full-thickness burns of the head, neck, and chest. While planning the patient’s care, the nurse should identify which of the following risks as the priority for assessment and intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient has extensive burns involving the head, neck, and chest, the priority concern is airway obstruction. The proximity of the burns to the airway can lead to swelling and compromise the patient's ability to breathe. In this situation, ensuring a clear airway and adequate oxygenation takes precedence over other risks such as infection, fluid imbalance, or pain management. While these are also important considerations in burn care, the immediate threat to the patient's life from airway compromise makes it the priority for assessment and intervention.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage osteoporosis and is reporting severe pain. The client’s respiratory rate is 14 per minute. Which of the following medications should the nurse prioritize administering?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hydromorphone, an opioid, is the most appropriate option for managing severe pain in this context. Opioids provide fast-acting relief for acute pain associated with advanced osteoporosis. Promethazine (Choice A) is an antihistamine and not indicated for pain relief. Ketorolac (Choice C) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that may increase the risk of bleeding and is not recommended for severe pain management. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is not the first-line treatment for severe acute pain.

3. When educating a patient about gabapentin use, what should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It can cause sedation.' Gabapentin is known to cause sedation, and patients should be advised about this side effect, especially regarding activities that require alertness. Choice B is incorrect because gabapentin should not be taken with alcohol as it can increase the risk of central nervous system depression. Choice C is incorrect because while gabapentin is used to treat nerve pain, it is not classified as a traditional pain reliever. Choice D is incorrect because gabapentin, like any medication, can have side effects, such as dizziness, drowsiness, and fatigue.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 31 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of a potential prenatal complication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Blurred vision can be an indicator of serious conditions such as preeclampsia, which involves hypertension and can lead to significant maternal and fetal complications. Periodic tingling of fingers, absence of clonus, and leg cramps are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious prenatal complications like preeclampsia. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of alendronate. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it.' Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation and to reduce the risk of this side effect, clients should be instructed to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after administration. Choice A is incorrect as alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, usually in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day. Choice C is incorrect because alendronate should not be taken at bedtime, as the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it. Choice D is incorrect as antacids can interfere with the absorption of alendronate, so they should not be taken together.

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