Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
• B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.

2. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) providing care to a child who is in skeletal traction. Which of the following actions requires intervention?

• A. Providing a high-protein snack
• B. Assisting the child to reposition
• C. Placing weights on the child’s bed
• D. Massaging pressure points

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Placing weights on the child's bed can alter the traction, which must remain constant to be effective. This action requires immediate intervention to prevent harm. Providing a high-protein snack (Choice A) is appropriate for the child's nutritional needs. Assisting the child to reposition (Choice B) helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers. Massaging pressure points (Choice D) can help promote circulation and prevent skin breakdown. However, altering the traction by placing weights on the bed can be detrimental to the child's condition and must be corrected promptly.

3. A healthcare professional is completing a nutritional assessment on a client and measures body mass index (BMI). Which of the following readings correlates with a BMI of an overweight client?

• A. 18.5
• B. 24.9
• C. 25
• D. 32

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. Therefore, a BMI of 25 correlates with an overweight client. A BMI of 18.5-24.9 indicates a healthy weight. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they fall into the healthy weight or obese categories, not overweight.

4. A client is being taught about the use of digoxin. Which of the following should be included?

• A. Monitor for low blood pressure
• B. It can cause bradycardia
• C. Take it with calcium supplements
• D. It has no side effects

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It can cause bradycardia.' Digoxin can cause bradycardia as one of its side effects. Clients should be educated about this potential effect and instructed to monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because digoxin is more likely to cause arrhythmias than low blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as calcium supplements can interfere with the absorption of digoxin. Choice D is incorrect as digoxin has various side effects, and clients should be aware of them.

5. A nurse is caring for a client with a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following should the nurse monitor?

• A. Blood pressure
• B. Liver function
• C. Serum potassium levels
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and angina. As a beta-blocker, it primarily affects the cardiovascular system by reducing heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's blood pressure regularly to assess the drug's effectiveness and ensure that it is within the therapeutic range. Monitoring liver function, serum potassium levels, or blood glucose is not typically required for clients taking metoprolol, as its primary impact is on the heart and blood vessels, making choice A the most appropriate monitoring parameter.

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