ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr
- B. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
- C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
- D. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate can depress the central nervous system, leading to respiratory depression. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute is below the normal range and requires immediate intervention. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr (Choice A) is within the normal range for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Absent deep tendon reflexes (Choice C) are an expected finding due to the medication's effect on neuromuscular excitability. A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg (Choice D) is slightly elevated but not a priority concern compared to severe respiratory depression.
2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take ibuprofen for headaches.
- B. I will use an electric razor to shave.
- C. I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables.
- D. I will have my blood levels checked regularly.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ibuprofen can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, as both medications affect clotting. The client should use alternative pain relievers like acetaminophen. Choice B is correct as using an electric razor is a safe choice to prevent cuts that could lead to bleeding. Choice C is correct as warfarin interacts with vitamin K found in leafy green vegetables. Choice D is correct as regular blood level checks are necessary to monitor the effects and adjust the warfarin dosage if needed.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following diets should the nurse anticipate the provider to prescribe?
- A. 4 g sodium diet
- B. Potassium-restricted diet
- C. High phosphorus diet
- D. High protein diet
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Clients with chronic kidney disease often have difficulty regulating potassium levels in their blood. A potassium-restricted diet helps prevent hyperkalemia, a common complication in these clients. High sodium diet (Choice A) is typically avoided in kidney disease to prevent fluid retention and high blood pressure. High phosphorus diet (Choice C) is usually restricted in kidney disease as elevated phosphorus levels can lead to bone and heart problems. While protein is important for overall health, a high protein diet (Choice D) can put extra strain on the kidneys and is usually limited in chronic kidney disease.
4. A home care nurse is following up with a postpartum client. Which of the following is a risk factor that places this client at risk for postpartum depression?
- A. History of anxiety
- B. Socioeconomic status
- C. Hormonal changes with a rapid decline in estrogen and progesterone
- D. Support from family members
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Postpartum depression can be triggered by various factors, but one of the strongest predictors is a rapid drop in estrogen and progesterone levels following childbirth. These hormonal changes can affect mood regulation, making some women more vulnerable to depression during the postpartum period. Choices A, B, and D are not direct risk factors associated with postpartum depression. While a history of anxiety may contribute, it is not as directly linked to the hormonal changes that occur postpartum. Socioeconomic status and support from family members may influence the overall well-being of the mother but are not specific risk factors for postpartum depression.
5. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about measures to prevent the development of skin cancer. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will avoid going outside between 1000 and 1600.
- B. I will wear a wide-brimmed hat when I go outside.
- C. I will make sure to apply sunscreen with SPF 10 when I’m in the sun.
- D. I will reapply my sunscreen every 2 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. An SPF of at least 15 is recommended to effectively protect against harmful UV rays. A sunscreen with an SPF of 10 is insufficient and does not provide adequate protection against skin cancer. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of sun protection measures, such as avoiding peak sun hours, wearing protective clothing like a wide-brimmed hat, and reapplying sunscreen every 2 hours, which are all effective strategies to prevent skin cancer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access