a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled for electromyography (EMG). Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. During an electromyography (EMG) procedure, small needle electrodes are inserted into the muscles to identify muscle weakness and evaluate local nerve responses. This information is crucial for the client to know beforehand. Choice A is incorrect because radioisotopes are not used in EMG procedures. Choice B is incorrect because flushing is not a common occurrence during EMG. Choice C is incorrect because claustrophobia is more relevant to MRI or CT scans, not EMG procedures.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a newborn who is 24 hours old. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilirubin 4 mg/dL. A bilirubin level of 4 mg/dL is elevated for a newborn and requires monitoring and potential intervention to prevent complications such as jaundice and kernicterus. Elevated bilirubin levels in newborns can lead to serious neurological consequences. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges for a newborn and do not require immediate reporting to the provider. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated bilirubin level to the provider for further evaluation and management.

4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has COPD about nutrition. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Consume high-calorie, high-protein foods.' Clients with COPD often have increased energy needs due to the work of breathing. Consuming high-calorie, high-protein foods can help provide the necessary energy and prevent weight loss. Choice A is incorrect because eating three large meals daily may lead to increased shortness of breath due to a full stomach. Choice C is incorrect because limiting caffeinated drinks is important, but the recommendation should focus on reducing intake, not specifying a number. Choice D is incorrect because drinking fluids during mealtime can lead to early satiety, making it difficult for the client to consume enough calories.

5. A client has been prescribed enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide regarding self-administration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to pinch the skin and inject at a 45-degree angle when administering enoxaparin. This technique helps ensure proper administration of the medication. Massaging the injection site after administering is unnecessary and could increase the risk of bleeding. Administering at a 90-degree angle is not recommended for enoxaparin injections. Rotating injection sites is important to prevent tissue damage and irritation.

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