Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. A charge nurse is teaching a new nurse how to clean surfaces contaminated with blood. Which agent should the charge nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Hydrogen peroxide
• B. Chlorhexidine
• C. Isopropyl alcohol
• D. Chlorine bleach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlorine bleach is the most appropriate agent for disinfecting surfaces contaminated with blood. It is effective in killing a wide range of pathogens, including viruses. Hydrogen peroxide (Choice A) is not as effective as chlorine bleach for bloodborne pathogen disinfection. Chlorhexidine (Choice B) and isopropyl alcohol (Choice C) are more commonly used for skin antisepsis rather than surface disinfection, making them less suitable options in this scenario.

3. A nurse enters a client’s room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Extinguish the fire
• B. Activate the fire alarm
• C. Evacuate the room
• D. Call the client’s family

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the priority for the nurse is to ensure safety. The correct first action is to evacuate the room, following the RACE protocol, which stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. Activating the fire alarm alerts others, extinguishing the fire can escalate the situation if not done correctly, and calling the client's family is not a priority in this emergency scenario.

4. A postpartum complication a client is at risk for is deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following factors is strongly associated with this postpartum complication?

• A. Cesarean birth
• B. Vaginal birth
• C. Anemia
• D. Multiparity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cesarean birth. Cesarean birth doubles the risk for deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility and vascular changes associated with surgery. Other risk factors for DVT include smoking, obesity, and a history of thromboembolism. Vaginal birth, anemia, and multiparity are not strongly associated with an increased risk of deep-vein thrombosis postpartum. It is important to educate clients undergoing cesarean birth about the increased risk of DVT and measures to prevent it, such as early ambulation and the use of compression stockings.

5. A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has hearing loss. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Speak loudly to the client
• B. Use written communication to assist with communication
• C. Avoid eye contact while speaking
• D. Use sign language without an interpreter

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when assessing a client with hearing loss is to use written communication. This method helps ensure effective communication and that the client understands the information being conveyed. Speaking loudly may not be helpful and can be perceived as rude. Avoiding eye contact can hinder communication and appear disrespectful. Using sign language without an interpreter may not be appropriate if the client does not understand sign language.

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