a nurse is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis dvt which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
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PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare provider is preparing to transfer a client from a chair to the bed. The client can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. Which device should the healthcare provider use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A stand-assist lift is the most suitable device for transferring a client who can bear partial weight and has upper body strength. This device provides support and assistance for the client to stand up and transfer safely. Choice A, a wheelchair, is not designed for this purpose and is used for mobility. Choice C, a transfer belt, is helpful for providing stability during transfers but may not be sufficient for a client with partial weight-bearing. Choice D, a slide board, is more suitable for transferring clients who are unable to bear weight and need assistance for lateral transfers.

3. A nurse enters a client’s room and sees smoke coming from the trash can. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a fire emergency, the priority for the nurse is to ensure safety. The correct first action is to evacuate the room, following the RACE protocol, which stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, and Extinguish/Evacuate. Activating the fire alarm alerts others, extinguishing the fire can escalate the situation if not done correctly, and calling the client's family is not a priority in this emergency scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for an infant who has a prescription for continuous pulse oximetry. Which of the following is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to move the probe site every 3 hours. This action helps prevent skin breakdown and ensures more accurate monitoring of oxygen saturation. Placing the infant under a radiant warmer (choice A) is unnecessary and not related to pulse oximetry. Heating the skin before placing the probe (choice C) can lead to burns and is not recommended. Placing the sensor on the index finger (choice D) is not appropriate for continuous monitoring in infants.

5. A nurse is caring for a client in active labor. The nurse notes variable decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to reposition the client. Variable decelerations are often caused by umbilical cord compression. Repositioning the client can help alleviate pressure on the cord and improve fetal oxygenation. Administering oxygen may be necessary in some situations, but repositioning the client takes precedence to address the underlying cause of variable decelerations. While preparing for delivery is important, addressing the immediate concern of variable decelerations by repositioning the client is the priority. Increasing IV fluids is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the cause of variable decelerations.

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