Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. A provider has written a do not resuscitate (DNR) order for a client who is comatose and does not have advance directives. A member of the client’s family says, 'I wonder when the doctor will tell us what’s going on.' Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request that the provider provide more information to the family.
• B. Refer the family to a support group for grief counseling.
• C. Offer to answer questions that family members have.
• D. Ask the family what the provider has discussed with them.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to ask the family what the provider has discussed with them. This allows the nurse to clarify any misunderstandings and ensures that the family is fully informed before providing further information. Option A is not the best choice because it assumes the need for more information without first understanding what has already been communicated. Option B is premature as the family may not be ready for grief counseling at this stage. Option C, although a good general practice, is not the most appropriate immediate action in this situation where clarifying existing information is crucial.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of iron supplement. Which of the following should the nurse do?

• A. Give it with milk
• B. Administer it on an empty stomach
• C. Check blood pressure
• D. Monitor for allergic reactions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer it on an empty stomach. Iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach to enhance their absorption. It is important to avoid giving them with milk or dairy products as these can inhibit iron absorption. Checking blood pressure and monitoring for allergic reactions are not directly related to the administration of iron supplements and are not the primary considerations in this case.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following findings as an indication of magnesium toxicity?

• A. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Increased urinary output
• D. Hyperreflexia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased deep tendon reflexes. Magnesium sulfate toxicity can lead to diminished deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and decreased urine output. Diminished deep tendon reflexes are an early sign of magnesium toxicity and indicate the need to discontinue the infusion. Elevated blood pressure (choice B) is not typically associated with magnesium toxicity. Increased urinary output (choice C) is also not a common finding in magnesium toxicity. Hyperreflexia (choice D) is not consistent with the expected findings of magnesium toxicity, which typically causes decreased reflexes.

5. A client with type 1 DM is being taught about hypoglycemia by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “Exercise decreases the risk of hypoglycemia.”
• B. “I should skip my insulin if I don't eat.”
• C. “I can drink 4 oz of regular soda if my blood sugar is low.”
• D. “Oral diabetic medications do not lead to hypoglycemia; only insulin does.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client should have a quick-acting source of 15 g of carbohydrates to treat hypoglycemic episodes, such as 4 oz of regular soda. Choice A is incorrect because while exercise can help manage blood sugar levels, it can also increase the risk of hypoglycemia if not properly managed. Choice B is incorrect as skipping insulin when not eating can lead to hyperglycemia, not prevent hypoglycemia. Choice D is incorrect because certain oral diabetic medications can indeed cause hypoglycemia, not just insulin.

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