Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. While caring for a client in active labor, a nurse notes late decelerations in the FHR on the external fetal monitor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Change the client's position
• B. Palpate the uterus to assess for tachysystole
• C. Increase the client's IV infusion rate
• D. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via nonrebreather mask

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial action for the nurse to take is to change the client's position. This intervention can alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord, potentially improving fetal oxygenation and addressing the underlying cause of late decelerations. Palpating the uterus to assess for tachysystole or increasing the IV infusion rate are not the first-line interventions for addressing late decelerations. Administering oxygen at a high flow rate via a nonrebreather mask may be necessary but is not the priority action in this situation.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client’s contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a duration of 90 seconds, and the fetal heart rate is 170-180/minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• B. Increase the oxytocin infusion
• C. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• D. Maintain the oxytocin infusion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the contractions are too frequent (tachysystole), and the fetal heart rate is elevated. Tachysystole can lead to decreased oxygen perfusion to the fetus, causing fetal distress. Therefore, the correct action for the nurse to take is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion to prevent harm to both the mother and fetus. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion would exacerbate the current situation, potentially leading to further complications. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the tachysystole and elevated fetal heart rate, making it an inappropriate choice.

4. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. Which action should the nurse take when toxicity occurs?

• A. Position the client supine
• B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5%
• C. Administer calcium gluconate IV
• D. Administer methylergonovine IM

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When toxicity from magnesium sulfate occurs, the nurse should administer calcium gluconate IV as it is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Positioning the client supine may not address the toxicity issue. Administering dextrose 5% is not the appropriate intervention for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Methylergonovine is used to manage postpartum hemorrhage and is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions from the provider should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the client’s respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for clients with congestive heart failure to help reduce blood pressure and fluid overload. Option A is incorrect as in congestive heart failure, a lower respiratory rate could be a sign of worsening condition and needs immediate attention rather than waiting to call the provider. Option B is incorrect as administering a large IV bolus of sodium chloride could exacerbate fluid overload in a client with heart failure. Option D is incorrect as a pulse rate lower than 80/min may not necessarily indicate a problem in a client with congestive heart failure.

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