Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. Bleeding time

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client for signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional look for?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is a critical sign of anaphylaxis. During anaphylaxis, there is a widespread vasodilation leading to a drop in blood pressure, which manifests as hypotension. This can be accompanied by other symptoms such as swelling, difficulty breathing, hives, and itching. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically associated with anaphylaxis; instead, tachycardia is more common due to the body's response to the allergic reaction. Increased appetite (choice C) is unrelated to anaphylaxis, as individuals experiencing anaphylaxis often feel unwell and may have nausea or vomiting. Decreased respiratory rate (choice D) is also not a typical finding in anaphylaxis; instead, respiratory distress and wheezing are more commonly observed.

3. A nurse is assessing a male adolescent client who has heart failure. Based on the client’s chart, which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Withhold spironolactone
• B. Administer ferrous sulfate
• C. Administer furosemide
• D. Withhold digoxin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer furosemide. Furosemide is a diuretic commonly used in heart failure to manage fluid retention, helping alleviate symptoms like edema and shortness of breath. Withholding spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, could lead to electrolyte imbalances. Administering ferrous sulfate is used to treat iron deficiency anemia, not heart failure. Withholding digoxin, a medication used in heart failure to improve heart function, can worsen the client's condition.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy and has gestational diabetes. Which of the following complications is the fetus at risk for?

• A. Macrosomia
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cleft palate
• D. Spina bifida

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Macrosomia. Gestational diabetes can result in fetal macrosomia, a condition where the baby grows larger than normal due to excess glucose in the mother's blood. This increases the risk of complications during delivery. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hydrocephalus is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain. Cleft palate is a congenital condition where there is a split or opening in the roof of the mouth. Spina bifida is a neural tube defect characterized by the incomplete development of the spinal cord or its coverings.

5. A nurse is teaching a client about fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) for the screening of colorectal cancer. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. “Your provider will use stool samples from your bowel movement to perform the test.”
• B. “Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to cleanse the bowel.”
• C. “You should begin biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 50 years old.”
• D. “You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid corticosteroids and vitamin C prior to testing to prevent false-positive results. Choice A is incorrect because stool samples from bowel movements, not from digital rectal examinations, are used for FOBT. Choice B is incorrect because a stimulant laxative is not typically prescribed before FOBT; rather, the client is instructed to follow specific dietary restrictions. Choice C is incorrect because biennial fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening usually begins at 50 years old, not 40.

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