ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form B
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory values should the provider monitor to evaluate the therapeutic effect of the heparin?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. Bleeding time
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor heparin therapy. PTT measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is specifically used to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy such as heparin. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the heparin dose is within the therapeutic range. Platelet count, Prothrombin time (PT), and Bleeding time are not specific laboratory values for monitoring the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. Platelet count is more indicative of platelet function, PT is used to monitor warfarin therapy, and Bleeding time assesses platelet function rather than the effect of heparin therapy.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Fluid overload
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid overload. Clients with chronic kidney disease are prone to fluid overload due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys may not effectively regulate fluid balance, leading to fluid retention. Monitoring for signs of fluid overload, such as edema, hypertension, and shortness of breath, is crucial. Choice A, Hypokalemia, is less likely in chronic kidney disease as the kidneys often have difficulty excreting potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Decreased blood pressure (Choice C) is not a common finding in chronic kidney disease unless complications like volume depletion occur. Increased appetite (Choice D) is not typically associated with chronic kidney disease; in fact, many clients may experience a decreased appetite due to various factors such as uremia and dietary restrictions.
3. A charge nurse on a med-surg unit is preparing to delegate tasks to a licensed practical nurse (LPN). What task should the charge nurse delegate to the LPN?
- A. Initiate a care plan.
- B. Perform a complex wound dressing change.
- C. Administer an oral antibiotic to a patient.
- D. Complete an initial assessment.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct task that the charge nurse should delegate to the LPN is to administer an oral antibiotic to a patient. LPNs are trained and permitted to administer medications orally under the supervision of a registered nurse. Initiating a care plan (Choice A) and completing an initial assessment (Choice D) are tasks that typically require higher-level nursing education and critical thinking skills, which are more suitable for registered nurses. Performing a complex wound dressing change (Choice B) involves specialized skills and assessment that are often within the scope of practice of registered nurses or wound care specialists.
4. A charge nurse is discussing HIPAA with a newly licensed nurse. Which action should the charge nurse include in the teaching as an example of a HIPAA violation?
- A. Faxing a patient’s discharge summary to the pharmacy.
- B. Emailing the patient’s positive hepatitis results from an unencrypted server.
- C. Discussing the patient’s care plan during bedside rounds.
- D. Placing the patient’s chart in a secure location at the nurse’s station.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Emailing patient information from an unencrypted server violates HIPAA because it exposes sensitive health information to potential breaches. Choice A is not a violation as long as the fax is sent to the correct recipient. Choice C is not a violation if the discussion is done discreetly and within an appropriate setting. Choice D is a recommended practice to ensure patient information is kept secure.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 38 weeks pregnant and has a history of herpes simplex virus 2. Which question is most appropriate for the nurse to ask?
- A. Have your membranes ruptured?
- B. How far apart are your contractions?
- C. Do you have any active lesions?
- D. Are you positive for beta strep?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate question for the nurse to ask is whether the client has any active herpes lesions. This is crucial because the presence of active lesions can necessitate a cesarean section to prevent transmission of the virus to the newborn. Asking about membrane rupture (choice A) is important but not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status. Inquiring about the frequency of contractions (choice B) is relevant for assessing labor progression but does not address the immediate concern of herpes transmission. Asking about being positive for beta strep (choice D) is important for determining the need for prophylactic antibiotics during labor, but it is not directly related to the client's herpes simplex virus 2 status.
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